Un-Answered Contradictions in the Gospel

By: Mustafa Sahin

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Biblical Textural Contradiction.

How many disciples did Jesus minister? 70 or 72?

Well the Christian website admits: that ancient manuscripts have differences, some say 70 others say 72. However they argue it’s more “likely it’s 70. And that the 0 was changed to a 2 was simply a “copiest error”.



However this begs the question. One could argue, it’s not 70 but rather 72. And that the 72 was accidentally rounded off to the nearest number of 70 by “accident”. However it should have been originally left at 72 as it was “inspired”.
So it’s really a circular arguement, there could be two possible explainations, both invalidating each other’s theory.

It is thus clear, Christian’s do not have “The holy spirit ” to tell them conclusively which is truelly the Word of God. That being 70 or 72? And so they just guess which it is, like it’s Russian roulette let’s hit the fire on the gun and see where it lands.

Honestly is this, what Christian’s call the divinely inspired word of God? What about all the other theological teachings in the bible can one say, well their just copiest Errors? Those who had the “Holy Spirit” while copying didn’t the voice the holy spirit tell them you made a mistake? Christian’s tells us often how the holy Spirit guides them to all truths. And it even talks to them in toungs. We hear how even miracles are being performed, and yet no miracle to correct the bible? Oh wait, if you ever bring this up, a Christian will say, do not test God!

It’s basically a trick way of saying, look I understand we kinda got exposed but don’t try and test God, because thats “blasphemy” it’s basically a convenient way, of trying to silence criticism. And Yet the bible says, “prove all things: (1 Thessalonians 5:21)

Interesting hey?

Furthermore Christian’s tell us, they can indeed refer to the oldest manuscripts to repair any scribal Errors, so I ask then why they couldn’t fix the issue of 70 or 72? Perhaps they can not because these discrepancy are too found in the earliest ancient manuscripts.


Does Jesus Judge people or does he not?

No: John 12:47

Jesus said “If anyone hears my words but does not keep them, I do not judge that person. For I did not come to judge the world, but to save the world.

Yes: John 5:22

Jesus said ” Moreover, the Father judges no one, but has entrusted all judgment to the Son

Then do they not reflect upon the Qur’an? If it had been from [any] other than Allah , they would have found within it much contradiction.
Quran – 4:82


Nabeel Qureshi Wife made False Prophecy in the name of the Holy Spirit

Christian Apologist Nabeel Qureshi, Wife made a “False Prophecy” about God saving Nabeel from his illness. 

See the video:


Click on this link to view the Video: https://m.facebook.com/story.php?story_fbid=828314077330844&id=100004567772338

She quotes as saying:

” I believe the Lord gave peace this means; this is going to lead to healing, I believe this is coming from the “Holy Spirit”.

Of course, this False Prophecy turned out False, and Nabeel Passed away.

Please don’t be offended or think im mocking Nabeel death. I am not, im just questioning these apparent, feelings and revelations of the Holy Spirit telling Nabeel’s wife and assuring Her, that Her husband Nabeel illness “will lead to his healing”. She made a definitive statement, and claimed She believes it’s coming to her from The Holy Spirit”

This is the same family that would say Nabeel had “visions” before his conversion to Christianity. And this was a “sign” Christianity was the true religion!

Now for my interaction with a Christian on this Subject of False Prophecy foretold by Nabeels Wife.

Christian wrote:

More videos on nabeel from a Muslim but you’re all convinced you have no malice or ill intention when posting them.
This is a propaganda video, watch the whole thing. For one he names his church in Texas, which is a baptist church. This is meant to continue to smear his name because he preached at bethel.
How many young mothers and wives out there would love God to heal their husbands and not be left as single mums struggling to raise a child alone but you’ve twisted it to make it seem evil or not good to want to believe in a positive outcome.
Why don’t you deal with Christians like Matt chandler who had stage 4 brain cancer or tumours however you say it and God healed him and he’s still preaching years after they took a huge chunk of his brain out. God does heal and making fun of people looking for it is sinful.
If Islam is real why do you lot feel the need to dance and celebrate the death of this man?


If you have seen the whole video what exactly did we misinterpret? Her statements are clear, she said along those lines, “she felt that the Spirit inspired her that Nabeel will be healed”. She passed on a definitive response. We wouldn’t have gone after Nabeel if he wasn’t making claims that he accepted Christianity and left Islam because one of those reasons was based on visions and dreams from the Holy Spirit. Why are you feeling so disheartening? Im 100% certain that had Nabeel Survived you Christians would have praised Nabeel Wife and her visions, but when it turns out false you want to play the victim card?

It’s not our fault that Nabeels Family were insisting on definitive statements to prove a Miracle through Nabeels Trauma. So my advice next time is “tone it down” and stop preaching that the Holy Spirit speaks to you with words of Healing, that way no one will complain when the guy doesn’t get healed, it is plain and simple. If any Christian makes such definitive claims and didn’t survive I can assure you we would have gone after him too. And “Yes” Mothers out there can ask for healing, but there is one thing asking, and another thing claiming you had a definitive response, which seems to be what Nabeel Wife suggested.

If Matt Chandler’s wife went on social media said she had a vision of Prophet Muhammed saying he will Survive in Hospital concerning her Husband. All the Christian Apologists would have criticized these visions, once He passed away.

Christian wrote:

Thanks for accepting that you’re going after him. All these posts and everyone is claiming no malice but at least you’re honest.
My problem with this after he died Muslims were posting that he had lost his faith and was going to bizarre lengths to get healed. This video continues that thread.
I wonder if you were dying your wife would give you and your people words of confronting or give you the worst-case scenario. She’s comforting her husband and giving him hope and it’s quite wicked to turn it into something to rejoice over.
I wonder how many Muslims will start drinking after this, you seem so eager to celebrate a win that I think someone might buy some champagne to toast the death of this young father.


  1. Again I dont know how much more clear I can make it, we are not going after and picking on Nabeels suffering rather going after and pointing out the false Prophecy made in the name of the Holy Spirit. Again, there is a difference between giving hope like, saying things like you believe that God will heal you and another thing claiming that you received a definitive response from the Holy Spirit that “he will heal you”. That is now a “Clear False Prophecy in the Holy Spirit name” And giving a False hope, which is quite sad. I couldn’t care less if you think we are celebrating, it’s another thing when you’re trying to wash it down like it is nothing. Like I said earlier, had Nabeel Survived you would have celebrated the Prophecy made by his Wife, and please stop pretending that you wouldn’t have. You guys would have lynched on the opportunity and made tons of videos about how Nabeel surviving this was another miracle healing promised by Nabeels Wife’s Holy Spirit.

Christian wrote:

Did she say it was a vision or a feeling inside of her like a hope.?


These are her words:

1-  She said “I believe the Lord gave peace”

2-  She said: “This meant: healing”.

3-  She said: She believed: “it was from the Holy Spirit”.

So I dont know how you like to interpret it? vision or feeling?

Whatever floats your boat. She claimed to know how the Holy Spirit conveys the message. Nabeel’s wife said:  “He will be healed”. Well more accurately the Holy Ghost. So stop pretending it’s not a ” failed Prophecy”. It is clear.

Christian wrote:

His wife was proven wrong and people need to stop putting words in Gods’ mouth, they end up looking stupid if proven wrong.


So you finally admit, his wife was proven wrong. Why then should anyone believe the rest of the stuff that comes out of their mouths concerning Nabeels visions? If his wife Got it wrong about the Holy Spirit working through her why should we accept Nabeel visions? Regarding one of the reasons why Christianity was true, Maybe that too are fraudulent tales like his own wife’s narrative.

Christian wrote:

The fact that he’s dead means she was wrong but I don’t see any malice in a wife comforting her dying husband. I wouldn’t have used those words but it’s wicked that the man hasn’t been buried and stupid little things like this are being thrown around. Goes to show just how well he lived his life because you’re all on a witch hunt and this is the level you’re stooping to over a dead man and his grieving widow.


So why is Nabeel’s wife, giving falsified Prophecy? Is this how Yahway looks after Nabeel gives him a false preacher wife, to lie or mislead Nabeel? And maybe Yahway gave Nabeel also a fake preacher like David Wood who also tricked him?

Christian wrote:

You’re taking something so small and making it so big. I don’t think anything changes whether you accept his visions or not. Many people in the Muslim world are having them.
You’ve already rejected the guy, let him rest in peace.


Many Muslims are not having these visions. As even your bible says that the Devil can appear as the Angel of light. For all, I care they were getting false visions like Nabeel’s wife and possibly Nabeel himself. So yeh sad these guys got deceived. David wood his teacher the bigger deceiver sent this guy to hell if He did die indeed unrepented.

(Another) Christian wrote:

How is what you said any different than what I said? She BELIEVED God was going to heal her husband. Doesn’t Jesus tell us to ask and believe?? This is a ridiculous argument to me. I have Muscular Dystrophy which is 100% fatal and I’m in a wheelchair. I shouldn’t be alive right now yet I BELIEVE he’ll keep me around longer, but like Nabeels his wife, I’ll still believe EVEN IF he doesn’t. This doesn’t make me a false prophet because I’m doing what Jesus told me to do, ask, knock, believe.


You wrote: “She BELIEVED God was going to heal her husband”.

That’s not the only thing she believed. She said, that her belief, came to her by the Holy Spirit. So it wasn’t as though, she had her opinion that He would be healed, rather she mentioned, she believed this inspiration was coming to her from the Holy Spirit.

She acted as though she was having an interaction with the Holy Spirit as though he was some Golfing buddy, which slipped a bit of information to her that Nabeel will be healed. Now that’s very different from acknowledging God can heal. And like I said, had Nabeel been healed, Nabeel would have made a video glorifying his wife’s interaction with the holy spirit as a true Prophecy, saying this is how the Holy Spirit speaks to us, David wood would have also clinched on the opportunity and would have made Nabeels Wife his female “Saint”. So let’s not pretend they would have not jumped on the opportunity to make a miracle out of Nabeel’s wife’s inspirations she believed came from the Holy Spirit. So yes since she claims that the Holy Spirit told her by a feeling he will be saved. And since He died, Then “yes” she made a false Prophecy. There is no Escape!

Another Christian recently also posted a response, and I responded, He agrees that it was “a minor false Prophecy



Also, more evidence: Nabeel didn’t exactly accept his fate. He never gave up on God sending miracles, while even going into palliative care, He requested Christians to “Pray for a Miracle” See here – https://youtu.be/kZpPhDzgdzg

Nabeel has also produced frequent videos never to give up, on Christians performing Miracles. He even suggested they can do; “Greater” miracles than Jesus”! See here: https://bloggingtheology.net/2017/01/03/nabeel-qureshi-truechristians-do-greater-miracles-than-jesus-exegesis-of-john-1412-14/

It seems, no true Christians left out there to show us a greater miracle than Jesus, and raise Nabeel from the Dead?

(Bellow) The Christian again says, suppose they made an “Honest Blunder”:



And now (bellow) the Christian is pretty annoyed so his now trying to have a poke at Islam:


And here below is a Video ” indicating that Nabeel” was Skeptical about the Bible and doubted it, in his last days:

Nabeel was made to get on his knees to ask God for “Forgiveness” pushed on by his Bible adviser. Nabeel was at the very low point of his Faith in Christianity, towards the end days of his ministry.

Is this how strong, his conviction in Christianity was after all those years, bashing Islam?


Now for some Screenshots, of other Christians who have been left embarrassed by Nabeel Wife’s False Prophecy. And here are the comments of those Christians who also “Testify Nabeel Wife was proven; “Wrong, Stupid, a false Prophet, Foolishness and Ignorance.




As you can see, infighting began among Christians about this, and the fact is, it was “a False Prophecy” and whatever feeling Nabeel wife got, what she felt, she claimed it was from the Holy Spirit. And now that it’s been proven False, all Christians can do is label Nabeels Wife, ignorant for not understanding her feelings. Though I can almost guarantee if Nabeel Survived, the same people, accusing Nabeels wife of ignorance, would have put her on a pedestal and turned her into “Hail Mary” but since it turned out False, let’s just blame the individual and shift blame away from Christianity that teachers “inspiration through the Holy Spirit”. Yep, you guessed it, When a False Prophecy happens that’s the fault of the individual, if a true prophecy happens, that’s the Holy Spirit! Convenience perhaps?

These are the same Christians who have given us soap operas from Nabeel having “Visions and Dreams“, before his conversion from Ahmediya to Christianity, and that it was a sign Christianity was the True Religion! Nabeel speaks about being at some feast, and this feast represented heaven, and his friend David was blocking the door, and the only way He could come to the feast is if He accepts Jesus.

See here:

Perhaps they are false revelations also? Oh no of course not, they are “True” ones! Right.

Well let us see, evidence that Nabeel seems to make up a story due to clear contractions:

See more on Nabeel Qurashi:


Does Allah & Angels Praye to the Prophet?

            Last updated:     20/08/2020          


By: Mustafa Sahin

Christian missionaries have twisted the Quran to claim that Allah and his Angels send their (Saluhna) Prayers on Prophet Muhammed (Pbuh) they qoute (Sureh 33:56)

So they argue, How can God (Allah) Worship Prophet Muhammed (pbuh)?



When analyzing the verse it certainly does not mean Allah did  Salah (Sujood) Prostration or Worship, to Prophet Muhammed (Pbuh) And this is the unfortunate misunderstanding of those who don’t understand Arabic linguistics.

When Allah and His Angels send their Selah (Prayers) all this means is Allah sends his (condolences or best Wishes, or blessings) to the Prophet. Hence there is a distinction between (Prayer Selah) and (Sujood). Sujood(Prostration) can be part of Prayer. But Prayer is not always part of Sujood.

We use this term even in the English language. For example; If you know that someone has lost a family member. We may use the “Phrase”; “We send our Prayers” (Condolences) to the family and Relatives. This does not mean; You worship the family members or relatives of the deceased person, now does it?

Similarly when Allah send’s his Prayers, it does not mean his worshiping that person, rather his sending his “good fortune”, “blessings” or “condolences”, to that person.

“Now some critics will say, “Selah” does not mean “blessing”, or “good fortune”, in Arabic word translation”.

One needs to understand word translation doesn’t always reflect the meaning. For example, the Quran will refer to Allah as (He). However the term (He) would mean Allah has a gender, however we know that (He) is just a term we use, out of respect, and does not mean Allah has a gender, and we only use the term (He) because it’s better then calling Allah, (IT). So all though the term (He) does not mean “Respect”, it doesn’t mean we can not define it as such. So just because Allah uses terms as (He), or (We) these are not literal terms as though Allah has a gender or that Allah is Plural more then one. Allah uses terms as (He) so that it can be distinct from being called (IT) and Allah uses terms “We” as in the “Royal We” to add power to his speech, and not that (We) is Plural of some sort.

Therefore not every word, is to be taken in its literal sense, So when Allah says, He sends his ( Prayer, Salah) to the Prophet, its never mean’t to be understand in the literal sense of Allah performing worship.

Islamic Scholar Shiek Al-Islam explaines in the Arabic Glossary. The Word Selah is distinct between Allah and human beings. Muslim Selah is not the same as Allahs selah. Muslim Selah is Prostration. While When (Selah) comes from Allah it’s blessings. (Or Condolences and Admiration) or Blessings, Respect in honoring that Person, for being a Good obedient Servent of Allah.

In the following bellow link there is Proof Allah uses Prayer only to mean admiration or (Rahma) Mercy to what He has Created.

You can read hadeeth here including Tefsir Ibn Kathir:

We challenge the Critics of Islam to show us a single verse where we, read Allah say’s in the Quran; “Allah and Angels send their (Sujood) Prostration, to His Prophet. Which actually clearly means to Praye in Worship. You will never find this in the Quran. On the Contarary, Allah asks Others to Prostrate to Him ( Sujood). Quran: 7:206, 13:15,16:49,17:107,19:58.

Similarly, You will never read Allah ever say; Worship Us (plural). On the contarary, you will only read Allah say; Worship Me (Singular)
Quran 51:56

Hence worship the way human beings do (Sujood) Prostration , is Solely for Human beings towards Allah alone. And never the other way around. Therefore Allah sends his; Prayers meaning (Mercy, good fortune, admiration, condolences, respect, honoring, blessings) and “NOT” prayers as in “Sujood” (Prostrate), worship type prayer as the Critics want you to believe.

Listen now from a expert who teachers (Arabic), who tells us more about the verse in Question;


So these desperate critics of Islam, have only got themselves to blame, for being ignorant and arrogant to comprehend basic, wisdom.


Counter Rebuttal section:


Christian wrote:


Muslim – Response:


Why would Allah send his condolences knowing that that person is going to meet his Creator.

Reply: What is wrong with Allah sending his grief, or blessings towards the Prophet, I.e keeping the Prophet in his prayers?

That doesn’t mean his praying to the Prophet. As you know the Prophet went through so many “trials and tribulations in his life, therefore Allah can send him “condolences”.

We all can still send our condolences to loved ones or people who have suffered, and yet we are going to meet those people in a diffrent abode. So the same logic then applies to Allah, that he can equally send his prayers in the form of condolences, even though He will meet the Prophet also in the Afterlife.

You then send, that its not quite true we send our prayers?

Of course the West does. You haven’t heard of the saying, I send my prayers to you?

See how Westerners write “get well cards”

By saying I send my prayers to You.


So regardless if you, say we praye to God and he helps that person. Your still using the the language of prayer directed to the person. So the same applies with Allah. He again all though says, i send my prayer to the Prophet. It doesn’t mean to the Prophet directly, rather Allah keeps the prophet in mind, and wishes the best for him in the form of blessing and healing, and so forth to the Prophet where God continues to send him his Prayers… so its more as a “figurtive speech” I send you my prayers, meaning I send you my help, mercy blessing etc.

It’s figurtive speech its that simple .

In fact even the Bible is full of figurtive speeches.

For example:

Jesus said that Jew’s are gods (Theos) in (John 10-34)

So is this to be taken, literal or figuratively? Since all Jews are not Gods.

Christian will say: of course it’s “figuratively”!

But then Jesus is called (Theos) a God. In
(Hebrews 1:8)

So is this to be taken, Figurtively or Literal?

Triniterian Christian’s of course will say that’s “literal”. And not Figurtive.

So just like Christians can interepret, the Bible “figurtive speech” and “literal speech”.

Then Muslim’s can equally intereprete the Quran in a similar fashion. When Muslims “praye” to Allah that’s literal, but when Allah and Angels praye to Prophet Muhammed (pbuh), that’s not literal and only part of figurtive speech.

That is how easy it is to catch out the Christian missionaries.


Christian  wrote:







Muslim – Response:


Ridiculous? Let us expose your ignorance of Islamic Text.

Firstly it is a matter of linguistics. In the Classical Arabic language of the Quran, the word We is used to emphasize God’s grandeur, it is a way of saying I in the most grandest way possible as is fitting for Allah. An example of a similar use of the word ‘We’ to emphasize grandeur is how some queens & kings of medieval Europe would say “We are not amused” when referring to themselves in order to signify their glory, It wasn’t that there was more than one king or queen. In the Quran Allah interchangeably uses the singular and plural in reference to Himself, however this is a matter of linguistics. So the singular is used to affirm the fact that He is One and has no partner or associate, and the plural is used to emphasize His glory.

God uses the singular and plural when describing many things in the Qur’an but a closer study will show that when God says

Q41:12 “ So he completed them, the heavens, as seven firmaments in two days”


Q7:172 “When thy lord drew forth from the children of Adam from their lions-their descendants and made them testify concerning themselves (Saying) “Am I not your lord (who cherish and sustains you? They said “yea! We do testify”


Q55:4 “He has taught (man) speech (and intelligence)”

Q2:30 “Behold thy lord said to the Angels “I will create a vicegerent on earth” they said “will you place therein one who will make mischief therein and shed blood? While we do celebrate your praises and glorify thy holy name?”

In similar verses it explain what God alone can do and no one else. In such cases God uses the singular but in other cases where God uses other agencies he used the plural like

Q25: 48-9 “And we send down pure water from the sky that with it we may give life to a dead land”

Q6:75 “So also did we show Abraham the power and the laws of heaven and earth, that he might (with understanding) have certitude”

Q51:47 “And it is we who built the universe with power; and verily, it is we who are steadily expanding it”

In similar verses you will find that what God is describing is using an agency to achieve what he wants, for example rain happens through various forces of nature he controls, Abraham was able to understand the laws of nature through various natural processes, the expansion of universe is achieved by a variety of factors etc. The “Kun fa ya kun” be and it is, is not a magic wand, God doesnt play magic but willed things and make them happens through process whose control are under his supervision. In a nutshell that is the difference between I and We.

Please educate yourself properly about Islam before you like to enter into a  discussion with a Muslim.

Thank you


Christian  wrote:




Muslim – Response:

You said only Humans wish or send things. If your Christian God is “ONE” then why God does send things ?

Let’s read from your own books;

24 Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life. John 5:24-25

So if He can send Jesus. Why He can’t send condolences?

You then wrote, God will “instantly” give?

Let’s read;

But very truly I tell you, it is for your good that I am going away. Unless I go away, the Advocate will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you. (John 16:7)

Really? You mean God has no time and place to do things? Surely not every thing that God intends to do or wishes to do, gets done right away right? If God gives instantly then why does Jesus say I must go. If I don’t go then God won’t send the comforter. So in otherwords God does not exactly do things instantly, rather there is a time and place He does things.

You then wrote, God does not wish?

Let’s read;

The Lord is not slow about his promise as some count slowness, but is forbearing toward you, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance. (2 Peter 3:9)

So clearly your God does not wish, for people to perish. So his technically wishing for things not to happen to them.

And yet you have a issue with God wishing Good fortune for the Prophet, since God is happy to see the Prophet full fill his duty.

And besides, God having a wish doesnt mean his limited, rather this is part of figurtive speech, since the same wishing of God is found in your own Bible.

If only Christians read their own scriptures properly, they wouldn’t be making the arguments they are making. Well that one was a reality check im sure.



Also just like to share a message feedback. It’s nice to see our apologetic work, is beneficial and being appreciated.

Praise Be to Allah. And thank you, may Allah bless you and preserve You and your Family and ALL the Ummah also.







Christian Prince Errors & Lies Exposed by Br.Farid


Over 100 lies & Errors of Christian Prince. Exposed by Br. Farid

Introduction video:

Br. Farid and Muhammed Hijab, discuss, CP.

CP fans admit, He is dishonest and a Liar.

CP. Lies #1-4

CP Lies. #5-6 ( Mohammed and Khatice)

CP on Slavery the double standard

CP, Doesn’t know what Christ Means (Zakir Hussain)

CP, 3 times. Lies #7-9

CP about Fornicating with Children. Lies #10-14

CP, to doubting Muslim. Lies #15-16

CP reads the Quran

CP God is a rooster. Lies #17

CP about Idol, named Ahad. Lies #18

CP verse about farting. Lies #19-22

CP, denies asking for money. Lies #23

CP, prophet stole bekeni Lies. #24-27

CP Tries to prove Trinity in Islam

CP lies 11 times in 1 minute. Lies #28-38

CP the moon eclipse was the Moon split. Lies #39-41

CP the Prophets name is sperm hyena. Lies #42-49

CP Nudity around the Kabbah. Lies #50-53

CP hangs up call. Busted. Lies #54-56

CP tricks a man out of Islam. Lies#57-59

CP, on Forign Policy in the Seerah. Lies #60-62

CP, busted on Satanic verses. Lies #63-66

CP hangs up phone, says Muslim hangs up. Lies #67

CP hates Everyone

CP Allah prayes. Lies #68-70

CP the Geologist. Lies #71

CP, Arabs put penis in Black Stone. Lies #72 -73

CP All Muslim say Allah is Physical. Lies #74

CP response to Farid “big mistake”

CP alwayse Wins.

CP and Panties. Lies #75-82

CP on Zaid and Zaynab. Lies #83

CP lies about Jesus. Lies #84

CP lies Bukhari is a companion. Lies #85

CP on Omar and the Black Stone. Lies #86-89

CP, Umar changed prayer direction. Lies #90-94

CP, busted by Azhar Sheik. Lies #95-98

CP fails to read (In the name of God). Lies #99

CP, season finale. Lies #100

CP Epilogue. Lies#101

CP attempts to Challenge Farid to Debate.

CP attempts to Respond to. Lie #1

CP, this video will turn CP into Joke

CP, Epilogue 2. Lies #102-107

CP, Farid vs Christian Prince (2017 old debate)

Christian Prince book review

This Video will end Christian Prince Credibility Forever

CP, challenged Me to refute this.

“Public Apology” to CP

Farid asks CP fans, if CP is a Liar

CP, Prophet had no children. Lies #110

CP, does’nt makes no sense.

CP, Imam Murrah Exists!

CP, teaches Me about Ghusul

CP, sex with children in Bible

Diffrence Between Farid and CP

Reaction to a CP video response

CP, attempts to defend himself 11 lies.

How CP got Afzal to leave Islam for Christianity

Does CP bring fake Muslims to his show?

CP does Fake Debate with DR Sabeel

Sam Shamoun claims Christian Prince is his “teacher” Yet Sam Shamoun admits CP books are written poorly in a way where it’s not intelligible, meaning it’s not understandable.

Conclusion: Between Christian Prince and Farid.

Also see, Investigating CP Islamic Scholarship Credentials


Christian dilemma the two natures of Jesus Christ


■ last updated: 10th June 2020

By: Mustafa Sahin

In this article, we shall respond to the Christian Trinitarian assertion, that Jesus has two natures. One being fully human, while being fully God. Christians have invented this theology to address the many controversial issues in the Bible, when talking with Muslims, and debating the idea that Jesus is God. When Muslims bring up many verses showing flaws in Jesus Christ that prove Jesus is not devine, the Christians in response use a get away car, to suggest that Jesus has two natures. So when Jesus feels hungry or needs to sleep, or He feels pain, or at times, He is helpless, and at times, not all knowing. Christians argue, that these qualities of Jesus are just his humanely attributes, which is distinct from his Godly nature. And so since Christians have “opened” the can of Worms” I shall demonstrate that when Christians invent new ideas into the Bible, to fix a problem they have in fact Created more problems for themselves, and we shall now explore those problems.

1 – Where are the explicit Words of Jesus having TWO natures?

The first Question I like to ask Christians is, where did Jesus, Paul or any of Jesus Desciples claim that ” Jesus had two nature”. And I know what Christians are thinking, they are reading this and saying, well that’s easy I’ll just pull a verse from there, that shows Jesus is God. Then I’ll bring a verse from over there too, show Jesus has human attributes, and there you go, here I’ve proved Jesus has TWO natures.

Here is the problem, anyone can get a verse, then force his own interpretation. One would imagine that in the entire Bible, if the central message of the Bible is about the Divinity of Jesus, then we would have seen at least one single verse, that combines both natures of Jesus into one single verse. Just a example, Jesus could have said, I have two natures. Period.  Yet we don’t find that in the entire problem.

Even Christian Apologist named Sam Shamoun from Answering-islam admits, that if pressed He can not show the two natures of Jesus in one person in the Bible, because it’s not there. That precise language, see

2 – Where is the Human nature of Jesus in the afterlife?

We often hear, from Christians how Jesus will be in his new Glorified body, and in the afterlife, He shall be seated at the right hand of the Father. Only the Godly nature of Jesus will be seated on the Throne. So the Question is, where will the Human nature of Jesus go? Why don’t we get any information, where the Human nature of Jesus be? Or are Christians suggesting the Human nature is also seated on the Throne? How can that be possible though when “only” God sits on the Throne? Perhaps Jesus human nature will split from the Godly nature, so are we to believe that there will be Jesus with a twin in the afterlife? We are told that the Human nature of Jesus, endured so much suffering, surely then, He will be compensated with a heavenly abode. So why is there no information on this, since the Human nature was if not the closest human being to perfection. After all Christians tell us, Jesus never commited any sins even by his human nature.

If Christians assert that, Jesus will be spiritualized as the God, sitting at the right hand, then Christians need to explain in book revelations, who is that one that is the lamb and looks slain? (Revelation 5:6) So how can something spiritualized look slain if it’s Jesus? So we are left with so many problems, we have Jesus as the son sitting on the throne as the God, then  Jesus as the Son who looks slain? Why is a Resurrected Jesus looking slain?

3 – Did Jesus commit a Sin with his Human nature? “The Inconsistency”

Christians tell us, Jesus never commited any Sins. And that’s proof, He is God. Well I ask the Christians, if Jesus is God, Because He never commited a Sin, and in doing so your suggesting his a “Perfect being”. What about his human nature? Is that also sinless? If the answer is, Yes! The human nature is also sinless, but wait a minute, I thought the Human nature, is not perfect, only the devine nature is perfect. I mean after all, you tell Muslims, Jesus human nature has flaws which is supposed to be distinct from his Godly nature, so why are we being told, both Jesus human nature and Godly nature are both sinless? This would now only suggest, that Jesus human nature is also Godly, after all it has the ability to resist Sin, even the smallest of the smallest sins?

My short video on this:

3 – Jesus Praying to heaven

When Muslims say how can Jesus be God yet Jesus prayed, did God praye to himself? A Christian will say, no Jesus had (two nature’s) so the human nature of Jesus prayed to his Godly nature. However when reading the Bible we come across the following verse;

“After Jesus said this, he looked toward heaven and prayed: “Father, the hour has come. Glorify your Son, that your Son may glorify you -John 17:1

After reading the above verse one now has to ask the question why on earth would Jesus look towards a direction other then his Godly self if He was God on earth having TWO natures? Why didn’t the human side of Jesus look towards himself, maybe walked up to a pong and tried to look at his own reflection, then ask his own Godly self for Glory.  Yet instead Jesus turns away from himself and glares into the heavens and requests Glory from above. Did not Jesus believe He had two natures?

I would like to ask Christians if God did come to the earth. Show us a example where Jesus himself prayed directly to this earthly God like he prayed to the Heavenly God. This clearly proves the falsehood of the notion that Jesus has two natures, human and God.


4 – Jesus Godly nature ignores Him.

We read a remarkable, event that takes place in the Bible, where Jesus is lead away into the wilderness, He suffers under Satan’s temptations, and as a result; “An Angel from Heaven appeared to Jesus and Strengthened Jesus” (Luke 22:43)

Now this begs the Question, If Jesus really believed, He had two distinct natures, why is Jesus depending on angels to give him strength? Surely if Jesus believed he was God, He wouldn’t need the assistance of angels, you would think Jesus would simply request his Godly nature who is already present in Jesus to give him strength, so what happened did the Godly nature of Jesus walk off? Did it go to sleep? So where was He?

To answer this, dilemma Christian Apologists suggest that, Jesus wanted to humble himself before the Angels, for why He turned towards Angels to be strengthened. They use this verse:

“But we do see Jesus, who was made lower than Angels for little while.
Hebrews 2:9″

However this makes no sense, isn’t it more important to humble your self before God, then before angels? Also, why would Jesus need to prove that his human nature is lower then Angels? Were the Angels confused about Jesus divinity?

Christians then suggest, why can’t God just use angels to do things for him, however this makes no sense. It’s not as if, God is somewhere in a distant location, or that his just busy doing other things, his right there, inside Jesus, yet He refuses to help Jesus directly himself. This could have been in fact the perfect opportunity for Jesus to prove He has two natures, yet Jesus refuses to request assistance from himself.

5 – The Two natures, Jesus does not know the hour?

The Bible tells us, that Jesus as the Son (the second God head of the trinity), has “NO” knowledge when the “Hour” is, let’s read:

New International Version
“But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. (Mathew 24:36)

As you can see the NIV says: nor the son.

However when we read the King James Version & New King James Version:

king James Bible
But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. (Mathew 24:36)

New King James Version
“But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, but My Father only.

Nor the Son, has been “Removed” from the passage, why?

Todays Biblical Scholars tell us, the (New International Version) bible, is more accurate because it uses much earlier ancient manuscripts, compared to the Manuscipts used for the King James Version.

Now here is the issue, if today’s Christian Apologist say, Jesus has TWO natures, one being God, and one being Human. Therefore when (Mathew 24:36) says, the “Son does not no” when the hour is, this is talking about the (Human nature of the son), and not his Godly nature, therefore this verse does not prove his not God, they argue.

So my question is, then why did the ancient scribes remove: “nor the son“, from the King James version? Surely if they believed ” nor the son” is just talking about the “Human nature” and not the devine nature, they would have left the verse as it is, yet instead they removed it from the passage, dishonestly. They tried to forge it out of the Bible. That tells me, biblical scribes deep down understood “nor the son” displays a problematic display about Jesus being divine and  so they removed it from the text was the best option for them, because they know, not many people are going to buy the arguement like, “oh but wait! that was the “human nature!”. Because the text is clear it says (the son is included) in “not knowing” when the hour Is. Because the text itself even shows that lets read again carefully:

New International Version
“But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. (Mathew 24:36)

Lets look at two parts of the text:

no one knows.

So this part of the verse already deals with Jesus human nature.

Then the verse says,

nor the Son

So why would the passage repeat itself and say, nor the son, also means Human nature? If God has already clarified the Human nature not knowing in the first part of the verse, “no one knows”, So the first part of the verse already covers Jesus human nature, so why then would God then need to cover the Human nature by mentioning the Son?

The best explanation I can think of is, it’s as though God predicted,  Christians will claim the Son was God, so God had to also remind them that not knowing the hour, also included the Son!

And because God made it clear to them that Jesus as the Son, was not God by showing us his ignorant of the hour, they tried removing the verse from the text. Now talk about, how dishonest one can be! Of course only now they have added it back to the Bible in the NIV, because they got caught red handed when, ancient manuscripts were studied, and it was found out that the earliest manuscripts did include the “nor the son part” Well thank you for being honest after getting caught red handed!

Christians when refering to “The Human” nature, have no escape! Because God refutes them, even when they try to remove it! Even when they try and twist the verses, they still get exposed! And thats why they were so bothered by the text that includes “The Son” they tried so hard to hide it for so long, that God foiled their plans!

Now here is another point, I will show you, Christians play the inconsistency and the convience card. Just imagine for a moment the verse read:

“But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, but only the Son, and the Father knows the hour”.

Of course the verse doesn’t say this, but let’s just imagine it did read this way:

Christians will no longer say this is refering to “human nature”, but this now refers to his “Godly nature”. Why? Because the verse makes Jesus equal with the father. So as you can see, Christians play the convienience card, they quickly claim it’s the Godly nature, when it suits them, and human nature when it goes against them. They will never say, the Son knows, because God shares all secrets with the Son who is just a human and God loves him. No of course they will never accept such explaination, They will instead say, no. The Son knows everything because His God. Period.

6 – Does only the Human nature suffer? Or also God’s nature?


If Christians claim, God the father did not die on the Cross, and also suffer as the Son. I suggest Christians, to refer to a Christian Apologists by the name of  Dr James White, who believes that The Father, is not a selfish God. He didn’t just send his Son, to suffer for our sins on the Cross. The Father also came down himself to get himself sacrafised along with his Son.  There Dr james white argues, God himself is not selfish, God himself also endured those sufferings.

Dr. James white says” The elective God joined them, Gods death became there Death, in reference to Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit”.

Dr James white confessed to admit this to counter our Question why was the Father selfish that he didnt die himself yet gets his own Son to die. So James white admits there is no selfishness and that the Sons death became there death i.e (The Father and Holy Spirit) and Jesus Christ ressurection became there ressurection (Father and holy Spirit)

Source: https://youtu.be/SzslKkjEb_g
Listen from (minute 63:20)

A Christian shouldn’t feel uncomfortable to talk about his God feeling Hungry, he cries, or goes to bathroom to have a poop, just as God can go through death, he can also do those other human attributes.

7 – Did God die on the Cross or was it only the Human nature?

Christian Apologist disagree with one another:

David Wood vs Jay Smith & Dr James White.

David wood says: “ONLY human Nature Died”. David says it makes no sense that God can die.

However he tries to assume if Jesus became a Man then it was the human nature that died. So God did not Die but only human nature.


Jaysmith disagree’s with David Wood. And that God can die. See
Jay argues God died. Qoute” He certainly did!

Source: (5.22 minutes)

Dr.James White also disagees with David wood. And that God did die on the Cross!


James says” The elective God joined them, Gods death became there Death, in reference to Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit”.

Dr James white confessed to admit this to counter our Question why was the Father selfish that he didnt die himself yet gets his own Son to die. So James white admits there is no selfishness and that the Sons death became there death i.e (The Father and Holy Spirit) and Jesus Christ ressurection became there ressurection (Father and holy spirit)

Source: https://youtu.be/SzslKkjEb_g
Listen from (minute 63:20)

Who is telling the Truth? Who has the Holy Ghost? The Bible teachers that the Holy Spirit will speak to You and guide You to ALL truth. (John 16:13)

Surely they all can not be Correct?

If We follow David Woods line of thinking, both Jay and Woods concept of God being Eternal Fails according to David if God was killed as both Jay and James white believes. And If We followed in James white and Jay Smiths line of thinking, than that would mean David Woods concept of God fails since his God would be a “Selfish God” as the Father sends the human nature as the Son to die while the father himself pays no penalty of his own, making the father selfish didnt come down himself to die instead sent his Son. Makes his Son sacrifice himself while the father does not sacrifice himself by getting killed as a God

We have put this in video here;

8 –  More Christian mishaps. “Jesus death”.

Muslim tell Christians how can Jesus be God? If Jesus died on the Cross? There are Christians who say, oh no that was only  “The Human Nature that died”.


I pointed out to Bosingr, is the “Soul” of Ravi Zacharias also God? It does not die, like the Godly nature of Jesus, Interesting Hey?

9 – A Christian admits, His God has Male Genitals.


So as you can see, Christians are confused and it’s really difficult to get consistency from them, you have some Christians who try to hide the shame that God has a Penis, they will say that was the “Human” side. But then you will have Christians like Dr James White who say, God died (God’s death became their death) so God was in actual fact like a human being, for he became a Human and really did die.

It’s also, Interesting, that Jesus also rose to Heaven, both spiritually and Physically into Heaven. According to book (Revelation 5:6) “He looks Slain” Therefore this would mean God has a physical appearance as Jesus, thus God has Male Genitals even in Heaven as He did as on Earth. And yet the Bible tells us: “God is not a Man” Bible: (Numbers 23:19)

In conclusion: Christian Trinitarians who think that they can simply get away with answering flaws in their God by blaming those flaws on Jesus human nature, only create more problems then solving the questions raised about their Man God.

Please also visit:



“Figurtive or Literal” games Christians play to Prove Jesus is devine God

Last updated: 13th August 2021.

By: Mustafa Sahin


Jesus God or Exaggerated? ” Figurative “or “Literal” games?

Here are some examples, where Christians manipulate the interpretation of the Bible so that it can conform with their theological beliefs about Jesus being “God”. We show that these interpretations are forced to prove that Jesus is God.

1 – Jesus said; “I and father are one”. Figurative or Literal?

Christian will say: “Literal”.

Notice: Christians will say “Literal” to conveniently prove Jesus is God.

2 – Jesus said everyone is ONE with God. (John 17:21) Literal or Figuratively?

Christians will say: “Figuratively”!

Note: Christians will never say, Disciples are One with God in the literal sense because then that would mean a Christian would make blasphemy to say, Disciples are One with God therefore it could imply the Disciples are God as well. This is why they will say it’s “figurative”, conveniently as to cause no blasphemy. So why then Christians conveniently interpret this verse as Figuratively, but don’t do the same when Jesus is defined as being “one with God? Why not say, that was “figurative also” oh but wait, that would not serve their agenda to prove that Jesus is God, so let’s conveniently interpret that as being literal when being one with God applies to Jesus!

3 – Jesus said Me and Father are One & When you see Me, You see the father.

Christian will say: “Literal”!

Note: Christians will never say, it’s figurative because saying it’s literal, will prove Jesus is one with God therefore a God like Yahweh.

4 –  Jesus said Jews are Gods (Theos) John 10-34 Literal or figuratively.

Christian will say: “figuratively”!

Note: Christians will say:  “(Theos) or (Elohim) can mean ANY spiritual being angelic human or both. But the tetragrammaton is the Elohim of Israel which Yeshua applied to himself and was nearly stoned for blasphemy”.

However, this is inconsistent, because Theos, is not just used for Jews in the O.T but also for Jesus in the N.T yet it is translated as meaning as his God. For example John 1:1. And Christians use john 1:1 heavily to prove his God, and they don’t claim its meaning is just (any spiritual being). Theos is also used for Jesus in (Hebrews 1:8) and Christians don’t interpret as (any spiritual being) rather as God, so why the inconsistency? Why not also interpret John 1:1 or Hebrews 1:8, as (any spiritual being) instead of God”?

Christians then say they nearly stoned him to death? However did they forget the part when Jesus rebuked them and also called them gods, to prove to the Jews, it’s not blasphemous to call each other Gods. Jesus was trying to illustrate to the Jews, terms such as Gods was never to be understood as literal terms. It’s rather like being called Godly people because people who serve God are defined as Godly. But Christians have misinterpreted these verses to suit their theology

5 – Jesus called (Theos) a God.
(Hebrews 1:8) Figuratively or Literal?

Christian will say Literal!!!

Note: Notice Christians don’t translate Theos in (Hebrews 1:8) as being figurative like any spiritual being”, no of course not here, it’s “literal”? Why, because the Christians force the meaning to go that way when it’s convenient for him to prove Jesus is God.

6 – Prophet Daniel worshipped in bible Daniel:2-46: Literal or Figuratively?

Christian will say: “Figuratively”!

Note: Christians will say Daniel wasn’t being worshipped it was God for God revealed mysteries or dreams to Daniel that came true, so they argue technically the Worship was directed to God and not Daniel. However the same thing could be said about Jesus being worshipped, the disciples fell in worship when Yahweh revealed a miracle through Jesus (like Jesus holes in his arms being healed by God), so technically the worship was directed to Yahweh and not Jesus. If you notice disciples only fall in worship when they see a miracle being performed not when Jesus or Daniel is going by their daily natural business when miracles or mysteries or true dreams are not being revealed, we are not seeing Disciples or people fall in worship towards Jesus or Daniel, rather when people see miracles getting performed is only when they fall to worship towards them, so one can conclude, people are getting mesmerised by the miracle and not the person.

Here are those examples:

Jesus only gets worshipped when a “miracle” takes place.

Mathew 14:33
Jesus only worshipped When Shown a Miracle. (Astonishment)

Mathew 2:11 Again Seeing the Miracle of Virgin Birth. Jesus Worshipped. (Astonishment)

Mathew 28:9 again seeing the Miracle (Astonishment) that Jesus came from the dead they worshipped him.

Notice every single verse where Jesus was worshipped follows by his disciples seeing a Miracle of God performed before them. I challenge any Christian to show me, where Jesus was worshipped where the context of the verse does not show a miracle being performed. Surely if Jesus was God, you wouldn’t worship God only when He shows you a miracle right, you will also worship him, while he’s not performing any miracles. So then can Christians bring forth a verse in the Bible where Jesus was still being worshipped even though he wasn’t displaying them all these wonderful signs and miracles, I bet they can not! Thus then we conclude Just like The King seen a Miracle of God revealed through Daniel. So If Daniel was worshipped because he represented a Miracle. And the Worship was technically directed to God. (Daniel 2:46) Then why when Jesus also represented a Miracle in the following verses. The Worship is not directed to God since God gave those Miracles to Jesus. Just like Daniel was Given the Miracles?

Just another example, when Moses parted the sea into two and performed a miracle, if suppose the children of Israel, fell to their knees and worshipped towards Moses, Christians will say, Moses wasn’t being Worshipped here, they were just worshipping the miracle of God being passed through Moses.

Ahmed Deedat response, that When Thomas witnessed the Holes of the Nails no more on Jesus, Thomas Proclaimed My God, My Lord out of Astonishment witnessing the miracle of God. Like if a person sees someone cutting their arm with a Rambo knife, we would say, My God! Anthony, what are you doing cutting yourself like that. This wouldn’t mean Anthony is God now, would it?

Another example, We human beings make such proclamations today like if you saw Ronaldo score a spectacular Goal we will say “My God” what a Goal! Would this mean; We Worship Ronaldo as God, or is this just a proclamation of showing emotional gratitude for witnessing such a spectacle?

7 – Jesus worshipped in the bible. Literal or figuratively.

Christian will say: “Literal”!

Note: Of course Christians won’t use examples of Disciples being mesmerised by the Miracle being performed from above, rather it was Jesus alone doing this, therefore his God. Convenient isn’t it? Even though Jesus said many times in the Bible the works He does are because of the father (John 14:10), and Jesus of himself does “nothing”. (John 5:30) But Christians will conveniently ignore those verses.  Of course, they would never ignore these TWO verses if it were Daniel.

8 – Jesus is the Son of Man. Literal or figuratively?

Christian will say: Figurative

9 –  All Jews are Sons of God in the Bible (Psalm 82:6). Literal or Figuratively.

Christian will say: “Figuratively”!

Note: Christians will claim the reason why it is Figurative because Bible scholars know what the divine council is and it’s spiritual. I would argue how convenient once again, saying All Jews are sons of God, is all spiritual, well isn’t Jesus spiritual in essence when His also the Son of God? Saying this is just “spiritual” does not negate your Jesus as not being as such as well, as all Gods children carry the spirit of God within them. Christians even today will profess the Holy Spirit dwells in them.

10 – Jesus Son of God? Literal or figuratively?

Christians will say: “Literal while others say “Unique”

Note: some Christians will claim, unique or literal means the same thing, but I say then why would they dispute the literal term? Anyhow there you have it, they will conveniently say Jesus is Unique or Literal Son of God, to prove his God, but Other Jews being Sons of God,  Nah that’s non-literal or non-unique, Jesus the Son of man, yeh Nah, of course,e, that’s, non-literal.


11 – Jesus said Kill Children who are disobedient to parents. ( Mathew 15: 1-9). Figuratively or literal?

Christians: Figuratively!

Note: Christians will say the above verse becomes ” Figurative” because it was ever enacted. In other words, Christians are saying Because there are no physical examples of children being killed in the New Testament for disobeying their parents is proof, that it’s meant to be understood as being Figurative One could simply imagine that no parent at the time, was willing to bring their disobedient child to court, because they would have feared, the consequences. Therefore saying Because there was no case brought up, doesn’t turn the ruling into a figurative ruling. Also consider, Jesus had more enemies than followers back then. Jesus had a very small number of followers and his ministry only lasted 3 years, therefore the chances of Christian devotees bringing children to court would have been almost impossible. Of course, Christians will conveniently opt-out to prove what a “Peaceful Religion” it is, to put a spin on the verse.

12 – Jesus said” I came not to send peace but sword. Literal or figuratively?

Christians: Figuratively or literal.

Note: Depending on what kind of Christian, you talking to He will tell you the verse is figurative, because the Sword here, refers to Words. But then you will have other Christians talking about the Sword being “physical” quoting, book revelations Jesus having a fight and coming back to fight the anti-Christ, and then you have (Luke 19:27) John Gills commentary talking about, Jesus coming back in the end times, and slaughtering those who did not accept him as King. Also, it’s pretty interesting that Christians refer to Jesus as being the same God as the Old Testament, yet we see a “physical sword” in (Samuel 15:3 & numbers 31 of the Bible) where People like Moses or the Ameliktes, including there women and children, were put to the sword, (but the virgins were spared) and only non-virgins killed, because of their disbelief to God. So when Christians try to prove “Jesus” to be some kind of pacifist God, it kinda sounding artificial, when History on their deity, doesn’t seem to suggest so. These swords were not words, and Moses under the instruction of God, killed and took the spoils of war, and shared it.

13 – Jesus said; “Love thy (Enemy)”. (Mathew 5:44)
Figuratively or Literal.

Christians: LITERAL!!!

Note: again this is a Christian convenient card, that it’s literal love because they wish to turn Jesus all-loving to a pacifist God because they are ashamed of the God of the O.T, so they now want to claim they have a God that changed his moral standards. Yes a God that is supposed to be all-knowing and all-wise, couldn’t figure out, until later that killing people on earth wasn’t the brightest idea of reflecting one’s compassion so he had to then act differently. Talk about, a God who improves himself? So Biblical God lacks moral wisdom and only understands it after killing children, babies and women?

14 – Jesus: will send disbelieving (Enemy) to Hell
Literal or Figuratively?

Christian: Literal/Figurative
** confused Much**

Note: Interesting they say, Jesus loves the enemy but sends them to hell for rejecting Christ? Pretty artificial “love” if you ask Me. I can’t imagine being told im loved even though im an unbeliever, or an enemy to Christ. I wonder if God loves Satan for being an Enemy as well? Of course, this is for those who interpret a literal Physical Hell. And for those who interpret it as Figurative (non-literal hell), I find that bizarre that people the likes of Adolf Hitler or  Satan will go to a Non-physical place of punishment, as they say, a place of separation from God, how is that justified, for gassing people in ovens, is beyond me. Of course, a Christian will say, we need the Holy Spirit to understand this yet those who have the holy spirit can’t answer these questions.

Now that we have established with certainty that Christians play with the biblical text to force a theology about Jesus being God, let’s look at what the Prophet Muhammed(PBUH) said in a Hadith;

” Do not Exaggerate About Me like the Christians did with Essa(Jesus) ibn Meryem, and Turned him into a God.”
Hadeeth is found in Muslim, Nasaii & Abu Dawood

In this amazing narration, the Prophet Muhammed (PBUH), understood that Jesus was never God and that God would never have meant to tell Christians that Jesus was God, and rather Christians have manipulated the text of the Bible, to prove that Jesus was God. And so the Prophet warned the Muslims, to never do this with Him, what the Christians did with Jesus Christ.

It is no surprise then, Muslims for decades have been requesting Christians to show a clear non-ambiguous verse where Jesus himself said the following: “I am God”. And there is not a single verse in the entire Bible! If Jesus was God, He would have made that clear statement. No wonder now why Christians have to force other verses of the Bible to say that Jesus is God, to compensate for something Jesus left out of the Bible, that being the explicit words to call himself I am God. Some Christians have even taken desperate measures to claim, Jesus was afraid to say those explicit words, because He feared persecution, but this explanation does not make sense for two reasons. One is that, wasn’t it part of Jesus mission to get persecute to die for your sins? So why then would He fear death, if he knew that was going to be his fate? And secondly, If he was so afraid of saying those words, why didn’t He say it on the Cross, that was the perfect chance to proclaim who He was explicit? Of course, when Christians are confronted by Muslim responses they resort to cheap tactics, like saying; show me a verse in the Bible where Jesus explicitly denied being God; like I AM NOT GOD.

But this can be easily responded to, because if Jesus had to deny every characteristic or attribute then that would be endless. Then a Muslim could say, show Me explicitly where Jesus said; I am not gay. Now imagine if people started claiming Jesus was a homosexual and telling you to prove where he explicitly said He is not Gay? Therefore this isn’t a good arguement to make as it can backfire. See Jesus was proving He was God, therefore He should have said those explicit words, which are supposed to be part of the core fundamental tenants of Christianity!

When a Christian is stuck here too He then tries to attack the Quran, and say where did Allah say the explicit words that He is God. Like the following Christian. But this has been refuted here:

Missionary Mishap – Copying Bad Arguments

The verse:

Indeed, I am (God) Allah. There is no deity except Me, so worship Me and establish prayer for My remembrance. (20:14.)

Muslims believe Prophet Moses is also a Prophet of God, in Islam. And we can see Allah telling us in the Quran, He told Mises that He is God (Allah) this would also mean, He showed Prophet Muhammed PBUH) who He specifically Is, by bringing up a statement He told Prophet  Moses long ago.

And in another verse;

So know, [O Muhammad], that there is no deity except Allah and ask forgiveness for your sin and the believing men and believing women. And Allah knows of your movement and your resting place. (47:19)

Allah, He now directly again tells Prophet Muhammed explicitly, there is no God except Allah.

Therefore if Christians need to show there is a consistency in the message, the God of the Old Testament, was explicit in saying the words: I am Yahway, your God. (Exodus 20:2-6)

The Quran says the same, however, these words are missing in the New Testament. Which clearly show an inconsistent pattern in God’s message.

So where did Jesus say, I am Elohim or Yahway, your God? In the New Testament? This in of itself is enough to prove: Jesus was never a God!

Enough said.

Update: I sent my article and posted it to Christian Apologist David Wood & Sam Shamoun and this is how the followers of David and Sam Shamoun reacted:


When Muslims like myself expose the way Christians play games when interpreting the Bible, to prove Jesus is God and mislead people, the Muslim is the liar? They no longer want to talk to Muslims. This is the hostility we always get when we take the time to write articles, and when we respond, we are told we are not educated enough to respond? May I ask what Islamic academia has David or Sam Shamoun got when day and night they try to fault Islam? But they are knowledgeable! Why because they are Christian, but a Muslim can never be knowledgeable about the Bible, only Christians can know about the Quran.

Yep, that’s how it is, but then again these are the followers of Sam Shamoun and David Wood, they have taught them, Islam, pretty well;


Also please visit a related article where we demonstrate how Biblical Scribes have manipulated the Bible;


So it’s no surprise that Christians today, follow the deceitful measures of their earlier predecessors.


Refuting Pedophillia Lie of Atheists & Christian claims against the Prophet Muhammed Pbuh.

  • Last Updated: 18th, May.2022

Watch video response: Ali Dawah gives a wonderful Response:

Now watch this:

Also, see:

And finally watch this also before we continue…




Let’s first show Christianity before we continue…..

Joseph “90 Years old” married 12-Year-old St.Mary
According to Christian (Historical Record) http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08504a.htm
{ According to the Roman Catholics’ Encyclopedia “New Advent”Mary was as young as 12 when she married 90-year old Joseph. This means that she was around 11 when she got pregnant with Jesus.}

Nabeel Qurashi a Christian Apologist even admits that Mary and Joseph were “Young Children” when they conceived Jesus.


Bible: We also have a clear verse in Bible. KILL women but keep virgins (little) girls to your selves.
Numbers 31:17-18. In this passage of the Bible a priest was given 32 virgin girls as “war booty”.

A Christian named Christian Prince even admits,  these girls were taken as slaves and after one month time, you can marry them. So after killing their parents in war, you take them as slaves and you can desire to wed them. See:

And then they attack the Quran about wedding children?

No wonder Christian Priests follow the Bible they are known as the Biggest Pedophiles world widworldwide00 Priests Convicted of Rape just in the U.S.A
Proof: http://bishop-accountability.org/priestdb/PriestDBbylastName-A.html

I believe Allah has punished the Christians for their slandering of our Prophet so Allah has exposed them. So they are taking their anger out on Islam.

Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) had many enemies and they claimed many things against him but never of Pedophilia ( astaghfirullah)
It’s unfair to judge people of 1400 years to even as far back as 100 years according to today’s laws and customs, you have to judge them if they were doing something wrong or not, by their laws and customs during their time.

Age of consent was set at Puberty in History:
Age of consent & customs
The Encyclopaedia of Britannica 15th edition volume 26 page 850.
Definition for puberty:
In human physiology, puberty is the stage or period of life when a child transforms into an adult normally capable of procreation

100 years ago for Islamaphobes and ignorant people go read history in “1889 America age of consent 7 to 10 years old in history in the WEST. Clearing the Prophet of going against the laws in history hence clearing Pedophilia.

This is taken directly from Wikipedia:


Under Subtitle History and Social attitudes.

Alexios II Komnenos Byzantine emperor married Anna of France at 8 years old she was born in 1171 married at 1179 died in 1204
Isaac II Angelos Byzantine emperor married Margaret of Hungry (empress) in 1184 when she was only 9 years old she was born in 1175 and died at 1204

Today around the world the average is between 13 and 16
Spain 13 Argentina 13 Austria 13 Bulgaria 14 Germany 14 Italy 14 Portugal 14 Brazil 14 Ecuador 14 Canada 14 and many more. The list is on the link below.

Legislation varies across Europe, with countries setting different legal ages of consent:

  • 14 years old: Austria, Germany, Hungary, Italy, Portugal
  • 15: Greece, Poland, Sweden
  • 16: Belgium, the Netherlands, Spain, Russia

In the UK the age of sexual consent is 16,

Source: https://www.bbc.com/news/world-europe-43300313

So if we look at it with a sound mind; Your ancestors can be classified as a pedophile as well. Your family is born from pedophiles. I am ashamed of you, you are an outcome of pedophilia, Perhaps?

Not to mention throughout history people would get married young because the average life span was short. And it was normal during the customs of that time. Take a look at 1700 to mid-1900.


Source: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Life_expectancy

25 years to 35 years was the age expectancy. So this is more proof that people would have married much earlier.

Also, this begs the question if life expectancy was low, then girls developing early to women hood would have been a factor too. Some people ask, would you give your 9-year-old daughter to a 50-year-old man? The answer is, we dont live 200 years ago let alone, 1400 years ago, where girls matured much earlier based on puberty. Just as life expectancy had evolved so could have girls maturing later.

Just 200 years ago, the American constitution had laws that set marriage between 7 and 10 years old. These days it’s not the same, so no I wouldn’t condone 50 years old marrying today’s 9-year-olds. Because we know that, they can hardly be developed as, today’s human biology has changed significantly.

We can see even the age of puberty dramatically changes:


So who can say for sure, girls didn’t develop earlier back 1400 years ago, Just as age death expectancy changes and so does puberty, it’s then possible girls and boys developed into women and men much earlier than today’s standard.

Christian Apologist Sam Shamoun admits on his Website.
at Answering-Islam.com

Thus, we have a biblical text establishing that the age for marriage begins when a girl has become post-pubescent, i.e. when she has reached a point where she is past puberty. Source:http://www.answering-islam.org/Shamoun/marriage_age.htm

According to experts in the medical field, the average age for the start of puberty starts between 9 and can end at 15 or 16. So this would mean Sam Shamoun is suggesting that after the age of 15 or 16. Then a girl can be wedded. However, if we follow Sam’s explanation there are laws in both Australia or most states in the United States of America that have the legal age set at 18. However, the Bible says “Post- Pubescent which would mean around 15 or 16. That’s still two to three years younger than the legal requirement. So will the critics also  believe the Bible condones Pedophilia because it would now allow a 30 or 40 or 50-year-old man, to get married to a 15 or 16-year-old? Sam Shamoun now has to accept that a 50-year-old man wedding a 15-year-old is not then defined as Pedophilia because He argues the Bible says, Post-Prebuscent is when she can get married.

Now, this gets more interesting, all though “the average” age for the start and end of puberty can be between 9 and 15. It can even start much earlier depending on which ethnicity or race, or the geographical region you are belong too. For example in the African or Hispanic continent, it can start much earlier like age 7 and can take 3 to 4 years of the process of puberty to end. That would mean by age 10 a girl can be Postpubescent!

See here:


Source: https://www.dukehealth.org/blog/when-puberty-too-early

Therefore Sam Shamoun technically accepts that Young marriages to even 10-year-old girls are Biblical!

So again when the Prophet Muhammed consummated his Marriage with Ashia, she could have been 9 years and 11 months old. (i.e) close to 10 years old.

And we know Islamic sources do say, she was 9 when Marriage was consummated. And not 6.

At age 6 she was only betrothal  to the Prophet, (a mutual promise or contract for a future marriage) meaning only worded contract, nothing more than that. There was no “sexual intimacy”.

So now going back to the Bible and looking at this book for approval of the Prophets marriage, which is approved Biblically and scientifically as being PostPrebuscent.

The West understands  the difference between a child and a adolescent is the onset of Puberty. Ashia (r.a) the Prophets youngest wife after becoming post prebuscent was married according to the norm of the society at the time.

Christian Apologist Dr James white reminds christians not to use the pedophillia arguement because, Young Marriages were common back then:
Source: https://youtu.be/wyvPhcsWbzY

Here is the Evidence from History and Present Day!
Age of Marriage was low back then. Western World.

Even in our Modern World 12 Year old Girls.

Read this:
2000 to 2010, the most recent year for which most states were able to provide information. We learned that in 38 states, more than 167,000 children — almost all of them girls, some as young 12 — were married during that period,

Source: 1:


Source 2:


We even have the “French” 🇫🇷  in Our Modern World reducing the age of sexual consent from 18 to only 15 years old. Source:


Makes you now wonder, how the WEST is confused on the specific age of sexual consent. Having sexual relations between a 40 year old and a 15 year old, would be considered rape in the UK, Australia and Most states of the U.S, well not so now in France. But again who gets to call they are “Progressed”? France or the Rest?

Here is another Christian conservative Apologist Milo Yiannopoulos who is Anti-Islamist agrees that for a 29 year old man to have consensual sex with a 13 year old who is ready sexually. It is not Pedophillia! He argues. Take a read:

For more details read: Responses to Common Arguement Christians make about Pedophillia read:

According to Journal of Human development reaching Puberty meant becoming a Adult in terms of Giving Consent read:

Young Teenagers in History who went through Puberty were able to give consent according to The Journal of Human development. As the onset of Puberty marked Maturity, Responsibility and Behavior. The link i provided attests to that for why the age of consent coincided with the Age of Puberty.

At the same link here:

Go to the Anti-Islam responses section bellow the page, we deal with all the twisted lies in the hadith that Ashia. Did not reach puberty at 9 years of age. Playing with Dolls, Does the Quran allow sex with prebubscent children? Did Abu Bekir Refuse Marriage? Also above the page we deal with the lie that she was only SIX years old. When this is not exactly correct, all though there was marriage at age 6, this wasn’t consummated until she was 9. We explain it further here:

See here:



  1. All though we do not condone Child marriages or sex with minors check out this point from a Atheistic point of reference;

Atheist can not even say from a Scientific perspective that child marriages are wrong or raping people is wrong. Take a listen here; there are no real objective morals in Science.

Again I’m not condoning Child marriages just showing the double standards according to their own Atheist world view.

In the Year 1976 “Taking Nude and Sexualized pictures of a 10 year old Girl in the West.


From the Religion of Love. 10 and 8 years olds in Romania promised Arranged Marriage:

12 Year Old Gives Birth in Australia.
Source: https://thewest.com.au/news/health/12-year-old-girl-gives-birth-in-perth-hospital-report-ng-b881084396z

Of course it’s possibly another Legal Teen pregnancy due to boy & girl friend relationship. Will now hush our Bogan Culture Under the table?

What about these: 17,000 Pedophiles in Australia?


Should we now say, Pedophilia is Australian Culture?

Rebuttal section:

The critics write; Muslims follow Pedophile/ Warlord Prophet as the “Best Exemplar”.


The West still has laws in the Modern West that still allow sexual relations on the onset of Puberty. Look at America the age of consent still set at 12 in some states. Our Prophet has nothing wrong as being the best exemplar since he never brock the ruling of young marriages which were accepted through out history. So yes his still the best exemplar for ALL time. Ashia marriage age was certainly normal and even today U.S laws still have the age of consent as low as 12. Just because your subjective opionion raises it to 18 does not mean who ever disagree is a false exemplar. Its a straw man arguement its like argueing if i change the consent law to age 28, who ever does not full fill this and disagrees and marry’s people who are 18 is the wrong exemplar.

So whos the best exemplar? Puberty at 9 is wrong for sexual maturity. But puberty at 13 is O.K for sexual maturity according to West? Teen pregnancy isn’t encouraged but still acceptable in West but marriage to a 13 year old is wrong?

Furthermore even if you like to dispute and say his not the best examplar due to our current laws. That still a incoherent arguement  because his life was the best exampler through out history. As you are aware his young wife was not the only wife, he had wives that were even older then him, therefore he was still the best exempler as he full filled both pre-modern laws and full filled Modern laws by marrying women whos ages of consent was accepted in the past and future. So to then judge him with todays modern laws proves nothing since he still married older women within even his own life time. Who knows maybe in the future Westerners may drop the age of consent back to Puberty, just like today they still accept teen pregnancies in the West so to try and character assisinate him on today’s subjective laws is quite unfair and illogical. And since when is the West the measuring stick of the best exemplar? The same West that has legal necrophilia, incest, sodomites, even having sex with animals. Girls who identify themselves as being Male, and then you have a lady marrying her piano, you can find these laws legal in parts of Western countries. So “No” the West is not the measuring stick of what is determined as best Exemplar. For Muslims engaging in these sorts of behaviours such as man on man is the wrong exemplar. Therefore imagine i used my subjective opionion and criticized West for being the wrong exemplar for human kind? See im showing you that its a incoherent arguement to apply a subjective opionion to determin what makes or makes not a good exemplar.


“Your Prophet was a pedophile! He was married to and cohabited with Aisha when she was just nine years old!”

You trolls need to find some new lines. The Prophet, peace be upon him, married Aisha with the blessing and approval of her parents and he was committed to her, took care of her, taught her, and, through his care, she became one of the most knowledgeable and influential scholars of Islam and a leader of the community. This was the kind of marriage practiced by Muslims and Christians and Jews and every other culture and religion for nearly all of human history. Girls were married young by their parents to committed husbands. My own great grandmother was married at 13.

In contrast, the pedophilia pioneered in the modern West, practiced by rich and poor Western perverts alike, involves, among other things, diddling one’s child relatives secretly in closets and dark rooms, orgies with underage girls that are essentially kidnapped, the most evil child pornography, sex rings with thousands of abducted children, where once they have drugged up the children, used them and put them through the most degrading, vile sex acts, passing them around among their friends like broken objects, these children are discarded like trash. Some are killed and never heard of again. This is the pedophilia of the “superior” west that you disgusting trolls want to equate with the noble, pure marriage of the Prophet peace be upon him to our mother, Aisha.

Don’t project the filthy degeneracy found in the “superior” West onto the superior religion.

-Daniel Haqiqatiu

A Critic Wrote: Yes I do know catholic’s also have a problem in Child Molestation but most of them seem to be historic cases, they seem to have got their house in order, We no longer have Grooming Modern day gangs as prolific in the West unlike the Muslim ones.

My Response: Predominately Christian cases are only Historic are they?

Most of the top 5 countries in the World are Predominately Christian countries who have a significant Child Abuse Cases. So Child abuse is part of your filthy non-Muslim Modern day culture, not just history.


South Africa

One child is raped in South Africa every three minutes, according to a 2009 report by trade union Solidarity Helping Hand.

A 2009 survey by the country’s Medical Research Council found that one in four men admits to raping someone, 62% of boys over 11 believe forcing someone to have sex is not an act of violence and a third believe girls enjoy rape, the Independent reported


In its 2013 report India’s Hell Holes: Child Sexual Assault in Juvenile Justice Homes, the Asian Centre for Human Rights said that sexual offences against children in India have reached epidemic proportion.

The report stated that more than 48,000 child rape cases were recorded from 2001 to 2011 and that India saw an increase of 336% of child rape cases from 2001 (2,113 cases) to 2011 (7,112 cases).

“Imagine 48,838 children raped in just 10 years


Police spokesperson Assistant Commissioner Charity Charamba said in 2012 that rape cases against children continued to increase countrywide, according to NewsdeZimbabwe.

“The (rape) cases are on the increase and during the week ending 25 September 2012, the cases rose to 81 from 65 the previous week. Evident from our investigations is the fact that relatives commit most juvenile rape cases,” said Charamba. 30,000 boys and girls sexually abused

United Kingdom

A quarter of a million Britons – more than one in every 200 adults – are paedophiles, according to figures released by Scotland Yard, the Telegraph reported in 2000.

In 2012/13, there were 18,915 sexual crimes against children under 16 recorded in England and Wales, according to the National Society for Prevention of Cruelty to Children (NSPCC). Included in that figure were 4,171 offences of sexual assault on a female child under 13 and 1,267 offences of sexual assault on under-13 male children.

In the UK, one in 20 children (4.8%) have experienced contact sexual abuse and over 90% of children who experienced sexual abuse, were abused by someone they know, NSPCC said.

A paedophile ring linked to Britain’s worst abuser Robert Smith, arrested in 2005, is ‘still at large’, the Herald reported in 2013.

United States

“Even if the true prevalence of child sexual abuse is not known, most will agree that there will be 500,000 babies born in the US this year that will be sexually abused before they turn 18 if we do not prevent it,” according to the Children Assessment Centre (CAC).

What is more “Shocking is that even in our modern World some states it is legal to Wed girls as young as 12 years old read:

2000 to 2010, the most recent year for which most states were able to provide information. We learned that in 38 states, more than 167,000 children — almost all of them girls, some as young 12 — were married during that period,



BBC-Reports Angel was just 13 years old when she was forced into Marriage in the U.S:

According to the local department of tourism, more than 4.7 million foreigners come to the Philippines each year. Of these, 1.2 million are men who arrive on their own. Most numerous are tourists from Korea, the US, China and Australia. The UK is ninth on the list, closely followed by other European countries.
Freedom to leave children behind?

In conclusion:

We need to understand we live in a Modern new world. Things that were practised in the past, were done in the context of environmental differences from today. 200 to 300 years ago, Marriages to adolescents were accepted even in the West, between ages 7 to 10 years old. Now since then the age of consent has been raised to 14 or 18 depending what part of the Western World you live in.

The reason being in our modern era, girls tend to develop much later. This is part of human evolution. And no, I’m not talking about Darwinian evolution, but rather accepted changes that naturally fluctuate depending on nutrition and environmental circumstances. For example they say, girls and boys who live in hotter climates tend to develop earlier then those who live in colder climates. And so if we accept that these changes can occur, who is to say 1400 years ago the climate was much diffrent and so was the science behind girls developing much younger? So for example todays 15 or 16 year old girl could be equivalent to a 9 or 10 year old back 1400 years ago?

And so based on that, it would be unfair to judge the Prophet based on the age He married Ashia, when she most probably did not look anything like todays 9 year old girls, but rather looked like she was 14 or 16 for the matter.

1400 years ago was awfully a long time ago, and many things may have changed by then. Thus the critics trying to attack the character of the Prophet have no real arguement at all, since they conflate our modern era, to that of very ancient times. For those who dispute and claim there is very little evidence that, biological changes occur or that there is no evidence that girls developed earlier in pre-modern times, well i would ask you to read this article:

So to sum up:

There you will read that even in our modern times, people are going back to maturing earlier based on nutritional factors . So I ask what makes you think it wasn’t possible for girls to mature earlier during the Pre-modern era? If changes are observed today then its also possible changes occurred in ancient times, thus the fact that there is now evidence that biological development fluctuates in our modern times what makes you think it didn’t fluctuates back in the ancient times? If it’s possible now, then it was possible back then, end of story.

Also makes me laugh, when a critic claims back in the ancient times there are no records to suggest that girls in ancient times matured earlier. This makes me laugh, because they think almost 1500 to 2000 years ago, there were scientists collecting data from all parts of the globe measuring when girls conclusively went through development. These fools think, that science back then was interested in those findings as if there were hundreds of universities collaborating with one another on such findings, well news flash things of that nature and interests about such topics were very vague and not conclusive and hardly was there investigation agenda as there is like in today’s modern world, they just didn’t have that sort of accessibility, people back then would spend months and years travelling from  one continent to another let alone, attain all the knowledge about human development of the time. Science and data was hardly even collected for conclusive rulings, so yes it does make me laugh, when today’s Modern critic rules out the evidence of early development in girls in pre-modern time because he thinks there is no evidence. Well, the absence of evidence is not evidence of absence, all it means is that people didn’t pay attention to collecting data more broadly back then, because of environmental factors, or other circumstances like the development of science. So for these silly critics to dismiss possibilities based on no data is foolish and ignorant and arrogant indeed. Because that’s not how things are to be dismissed. Just because there was no data in ancient times about the existence of DNA does not mean that DNA isn’t true, is it? Well, it is, even if there wasn’t supporting evidence for it in ancient times. Just as we have supporting evidence today of the existence of human DNA and the genome, we also have evidence of human development evolving at times maturity comes much later and at times much earlier which in of its self also evidence those changes could have occurred much earlier in ancient times.

A Christian wrote;



Clearly this person is a liar. The Prophet did not explain how the rules of the religion made it possible. Rather Abu Bekir hesitation was due to Aisha being already engaged to someone else at the time. And So Abu Bekir didn’t know how to approach this and end it, He later then found it a good idea to help end his daughters engagement to another man who was a member of the Qurashe who were enemies of the Muslims, so infact Abu Bekir thought this was eventually a good idea to end that engagement. Which begs another question, if Islamic rules were there to convince Abu bekir to so those rules favour the Prophet, why was Abu Bekirs daughter already engaged to someone else before the Prophet?

This in itself debunks the accusers, and that young marriages were practised before the Prophet engaged with Abu Bekirs Daughter. This now refutes the notion that the Prophet was like a cult figure trying to introduce a law to suit the Prophet, when there was already customs of young marriages being implemented before the Prophet wish to engage with Aisha R.A.


Jesus of the Bible will Torture Ex-Christian Apostates.

By: Mustafa Sahin

It’s pretty straightforward, all Christians believe, Jesus will come back and judge. (See: John 5:22)

His Judgement will include, sending disbelievers which include Apostates since an Apostate is a disbeliever (See: Rev 21:8), to the lake of fire, which the Bibles calls the second death a place of separation from God.

The Bible also indicates to us this place is literal fire and a literal physical punishment of the new Spiritualized body that will “feel agony”

See Christian Fatwah (commentary) “New Bodies feel pain”:

Source: https://www.google.com.au/amp/s/gotquestions.org/amp/bodies-hell.html

See also Christian Apologist Matt Slick who argues the lake of fire is both literal and everlasting and Eternal.


Matt Slick also shows the Bible, describing hell to not just be spiritual torture but physical. Read his “conclusion”.

Here: https://carm.org/christianity/what-is-hell/

So what we see is, All though Islam may prescribe to kill apostates on this earth. We see Christianity teaches Jesus will return and torture infidels/Apostates in an everlasting agony which is eternal punishment for rejecting Christ. This includes Infidels, Disbelievers, Ex-Christian, and the like in the Next life will face immense punishment’s.

What is interesting is that Jesus will not act alone. But also get his disciples to judge the 12 tribes of Israel, and help Jesus decide who gets the Execution.
(See Luke 22:30)

So both Jesus and the Disciples will cast infidels and Apostates to hell. So much for the Christian assertion, Islam is barbaric for killing Apostates who leave Islam.

Some Christian Apologists argue, that Islam is still different since it beheads those who leave the faith. However, I would argue, it’s equally worse if you put them in hell and torture them into eternal agony and pain. It’s like having to ask the executioner if you would like the Sword or the Fire? you take your pick.

Some Christians say that Jesus put to death Apostates is not a real style execution death it’s just a separation from God to Hades (Hell) where they will be separated from God. However this is not entirely correct we posted above in the article, that this place of separation is eternal, it has pain and suffering. And of course, God will be separated since God is not in a place called hell, thus the separation thus a type of execution, if they don’t die it’s worse since it everlasting hence eternal suffering, if they do, however, ” die” and their life does not continue it’s still an execution no matter which way you look at it.

Some Christian’s argue Muslims compare Earthly Islam Individual punishment to God sending people to hell? However this argument also has no value, since the basic point of our argument is the fact that Jesus will punish apostates not only by himself, it includes his disciples carrying it out since they will also judge see (Luke 22:30) So if Muslims are accused of punishing or carrying out God’s punishment then what about the disciples of Jesus whom will help carry out the work of Jesus?

Furthermore, there is no real difference between prescribing God’s punishment on this earth or the next, that would be as though assuming Punishing Apostates on planet Neptune that is wrong, but executing them on Mars is fine? It’s that absurd of an Argument to assert there is a huge difference, killing or torturing apostates is all the same no matter where it is, here(Earth) or there( Hereafter).

Besides I thought Christians believed Jesus will come back to this earth ( Luke 19:27) to carry judgement?

Nevertheless, Jesus and his disciples will kill or perhaps to the least torture and punish Apostates. Period.


Christian Apologist Caught bad behavior

Last updated: 23rd July 2020



The Christian Missionary” dumpster section”. Note this will continue to Update.

Jesus said;” You will know them by their Fruits. Mathew 7:16

Here is a list of Qoutes of Christian missionaries and their Foul mouths and true colors exposed on social Media.

Steven Tilley:
Gets caught lying. And deletes his post instead of Apologizing.

Christian Robert Wells:

“He does not care if Muslim Buisness are sprayed by Bullets or Mosque Vandelized so long as their are no personel injuries.
Proof: https://m.facebook.com/groups/872453962812726?view=permalink&id=991943360863785

Note: To view some of the links” you need to add facebook group called” World Muslim Debate Academy” once your in the room the links that can’t be accessed  will work!

Link 2: goes against Jesus turn the other cheeck he Qoutes” When Muslims kill Christians ” enough is enough”.

Link 3: condones “Rape”
If Jihadi Rape other Jihadies. Im all for it.
Proof: https://m.facebook.com/groups/872453962812726?view=permalink&id=983152251742896

Link 4: Qoutes ” He does not care if Muslims kill other Muslims. He only cares when Muslims kill Non-Muslims.

Link 5: Calls Muslims” Dirty Rag Heads” He interestingly also called Good Christian deeds Dirty Rag heads?

Link 6: Calls a Muslim Apologist Yusuf Ismael a” Swine” https://m.facebook.com/story.php?story_fbid=10153619190498650&id=735888649

Christian Nakdimon Yesman:

Qoutes” Tells Muslim to lick another Muslims “butt Hole”.

Note” Nakdimon Yesman once he got exposed, did Apologise for his statements”. Years later.

Christian David Wood:

admits he” Lied about leaving ” Aplogetics” and called it ” April Fools day”

Christian Sidwell Johaness:

Active Christian Missionary on Facebook.
” Qoutes, God can be stupid.

Christian Prince of InvestigateIslam:

Link 1: He wants to F##K Muslim mother if he can prove Paul in Quran

Link 2: He insults a Muslim by calling him ” Donkey Penis come to Mic”

Christian Sam Shamoun:


From Answering-Islam.com: Calling Muslim ” Fag Rat” Fat Idiot”.

Link 1 http://www.answering-christianity.com/shamouns_foul_insults_exposed.htm

Link 2: https://youtu.be/adxMGLmGzno

Link 3: http://callingchristians.com/2016/02/19/missionary-mishap-jonathan-mclatchie-sam-shamoun-target-dr-shabir-ally/

Link 4: https://callingchristians.com/2016/04/06/missionary-mishap-sam-shamouns-cursing-rage/


I personally sent Sam Shamoun a response I wrote.

And so Sam Shamoun starts sending Me, abusive Messages:




As you can see, He is very insulting towards women and a sexist. “Thinking like a Girl”

It’s a shame that his raising Two daughters of his own, talk about bad parenting skills and discrimination towards girls.


Christian France Francis Evg:

His a Apologist from India,
Caught condeming Muslims for Mocking his Religion while he got caught red handed mocking Muslims.

Link 1: https://m.facebook.com/groups/872453962812726?view=permalink&id=985905158134272

Link 2: http://callingchristians.com/2016/01/25/missionary-mishap-pig-headed/

Link 3: https://m.facebook.com/groups/872453962812726?view=permalink&id=1008642402527214

Christian Jonathen mclatchie:

Qoutes” Muslim immigrants to Europe are a “Cancer” and “Virus”

Christian Dr James White:

Insults Muslim named Yahya Snow. He calls him, ” Yahya Smell”
He also makes racist remarks against ” Middle Easterners: https://m.facebook.com/story.php?story_fbid=1681709005447682&id=100008257968099

Christian Naqeel Qurashi:

Ex-Qadiani now Pagan Triniterian: Mocks Sami Zaatari voice. https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=j7KowEzUAj4&feature=youtu.be

Christian Walid Shoebat:

Evangelist Activist foul mouth exposed calling another person a” Bastard”


Are the four Gospels first hand Eye-Witness accounts?

Last update: 17/05/2022


By Mustafa Sahin

Note: Bellow there is a rebuttal section to a Christian also read the Debate.

Most Christians say” The Four Gospels were written by the Four Disciples of Jesus Christ known as Mark, Luke, Mathew and John.

Even Christian apologists like (Nakdemon Yesman) and many Christians believe that the Gospels were written by Contemporary Witnesses. What contemporary means is that those were the Eye-Witnesses living at the same time as Jesus and directly recorded the events as Desciple of Jesus Christ

Well is this so? Let us see what another Christian colleague to Nakdemon is another Apologist Matt Slick and his testimony on the subject:

Please notes that Both Nakdemon and Matt Slick together write articles on the Answering-Islam.com website. They’re basically on the same team.

Matt Slick Quotes:

1: Mark was not an eyewitness to the events of Jesus’ life.

2: Luke was not an eyewitness to the life of Christ. He was a companion of Paul who also was not an eyewitness to Christ’s life.

3: Mathew. Matt Slick tells us again nothing about Mathew Being an Eye-Witness instead he admits Quote:

This would mean that if Matthew did write in Aramaic originally, he may have used Mark as a map.

So as you can see Matt Slick admits that Mathew perhaps copied or used Mark’s information who also was not an Eye-Witness then added his narrations additional to the Text.

4: John( Although Matt Slick claims John was an Eye-Witness to the Events. Matt tells us

Quote: The Gospel of John was written by Eye-Witnesses or under the direction of eyewitnesses.

What he’s saying is him not sure if it was written Directly by an Eye-Witness or perhaps if someone else Wrote hearing from an Eye-Witness.

So as you can see Matt Slick admits ALL 4 Gospels written were not direct Eye-Witnesses penning down the Events. Rather they were Anonymous people Quoting from Hearsay from other Eye-Witnesses. So the next time a Christian boastfully tells you we have 4 Direct Eye-Witness Testimony by the 4 Gospels written by the Disciples of Jesus. They are simply misleading you.


Extra info:

When we read Luke 1:1 says he ( Apostle Luke) investigated from the first Eye-Witness accounts. This could mean he copied from the first eyewitnesses. And then took that knowledge and then wrote out his own accord. So they would have borrowed a Narrative.

Christian wrote to me and said Quote;
“So Luke used other sources available. Is that supposed to be a problem for some reason? That’s what any historian at the time would do. End Quote.

Muslim Response;

Luke said he investigated. This implies he didn’t trust their holy spirit. Why would someone have the Holy Spirit need to borrow from others? He should have been able to know the whole event without having to look anywhere else. Since they were all individual eyewitness accounts. This proves they were not all different eyewitness accounts rather a non-Eye Witness copied the Eye Witness of somebody else.

Yes if he was to only remain a historian we have no objection. But soon as Christians claim he was inspired and an Eye-Witness then this raises the questions of errors.

Another Christian Apologist Mike Lincon also states the same that Mathew borrowed and edited his Gospel watch:

Now the Rebuttal Question will go through how a Christian responded when he denied our article so we gave him an example of why he can not deny it. We showed him if the Writers of the Gospel were indeed based on “Eye Witness accounts” they ALL would have written the same message on the thorn crown on Jesus’ head upon the Crucifixion:

Mustafa Sahin wrote:

Tell us what was written on Jesus’ head if there were Eye Witness accounts. Surely if they are guided by God it will all read the same thing. Let’s put you through an acid test.

Christian named Nick Peters wrote:

Why should they all say the same thing? The message was written in different languages and was translated into different languages and paraphrasing was perfectly acceptable.

Sorry. I’m not a fundamentalist like you are.

Mustafa Sahin wrote:

There was only 1 language written on Jesus’ head, not 4 different languages.


(Matthew 27:37) – “And set up over his head his accusation written, THIS IS JESUS THE KING OF THE JEWS.”
(Mark 15:26) – “And the superscription of his accusation was written over, THE KING OF THE JEWS.”
(Luke 23:38) – “And a superscription also was written over him in letters of Greek, and Latin, and Hebrew, THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS.”
(John 19:19-20) – “And Pilate wrote a title, and put it on the cross. And the writing was JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS. 20This title then read many of the Jews: for the place where Jesus was crucified was nigh to the city: and it was written in Hebrew, Greek, and Latin.

So if there are 4 different interpretations from an original? What was the original writing in Arabic? Greek? Hebrew? over Jesus’ head. It can not be ALL. Yet the Bible witness can not decide.

Of course, it will not be the same if it didn’t have first-hand multiple eyewitnesses.

Christian wrote:
Sorry Mustafa, but that’s a modern concept. Ancient minds weren’t interested in word-for-word accuracy but in getting the gist of the idea correct. Try reading scholarship.

Mustafa Sahin Wrote:

Thats a cop-out, exactly any excuse. The ancient text wasn’t interested in divine guidance as well I see?

Christian wrote;

Sorry dude, but no one holds to divine dictation theory. And no, that’s not a cop-out. Read Small’s “Wax Tablets of the Mind” for instance.

Mustafa sahin wrote:

Don’t hold to Divine dictation. Why say it’s divine guidance and thus divine inspiration?

As you can see for yourself the Christian when shown an example of why the Gospel accounts are far from being an eye-witness account rather I believe it follows hearsay. He resorted to blocking it out by saying, the scribes were not dictated to write.

Well if it’s not dictated and guided by the Holy Spirit then I agree the Scribe gave an un-guided opinion of hearsay. That can be the only explanation why ALL Scribes could not pen down ” Word for Word” what exactly was written down over the head of Jesus nailed on the Cross.

We can go a step further,

The Fact of the matter is. The 4 Gospels appear to be 4 Witnesses. But the reality is they ALL copy from Mark only improving the narrative. They all go back to Pauls’s narrative. Because Paul said if a Gospel is preached other than the one I preach then let him be cursed. So not only was the later Gospels copying from Mark they also had to stay in line with Pauls’s witness. Yet Paul never met the living Jesus during his ministry nor witnessed the Crucifixion. Additionally, the 4 Gospels are Anonymous. The term Mark, Mathew, Luke and John do not exist as Subtitle headings in the Earliest Manuscripts. These came later into the Manuscripts to show they were 4 different witnesses the reality is those subtitles were never there. Additionally when you open the Gospel of Luke 1:1″ He tells us that he is writing an account from the first eye witness. And he felt that he should write an account also. But notice Luke doesn’t claim he is writing as a witness to the events himself. Rather he narrates what he “Heard” not what He Saw himself. In the Crucifixion story for example we are told all the disciples fled and only in a distance there was 1 disciple who witnessed the Crucifixion and not 4 Disciples. But only 1 disciple. And the interesting thing is the name of that witness disciple is not even mentioned. Rather he is called ” The Desciple who he loved”.

Christian Wrote:
The authors probably wanted to eliminate interest in who wrote the story and to focus the reader on the subject. More importantly, the claim of an anonymous history was higher than that of a named work. In the ancient world an anonymous book, rather like an encyclopedia article today, implicitly claimed complete knowledge and reliability. It would have reduced the impact of the Gospel of Matthew had the author written ‘this is my version instead of ‘this is what Jesus said and did.’  – The Historical Figure of Jesus by E.P. Sanders page 66.

They also don’t all copy from Mark. John doesn’t and why shouldn’t Matthew and Luke use Mark as another source as well?

Mustafa Sahin wrote:

I didn’t say John copies only from Mark but also Paul. If John didn’t copy from Paul then John would be preaching a different Gospel. And Paul said if anyone preaches a different Gospel than the one I preach let him be cursed. ( Galatians 1:8) So if John is not narrating the same Story as Paul then John is cursed.

Im baffled also how by you think anonymous writing credits ability. If it’s anonymous then satin can be the Author and not the eyewitness

Christian wrote:
You’re confusing the gospel with the Gospels. The two are not the same. The Gospels as understood are Greco-Roman bio centred around the life of Jesus. The Gospel is the content and the message of the story. That does not mean the story has to be exact verbatim identical. The Gospel is the good news about the life of Jesus. The Gospels are accounts of the life of Jesus.

As for anonymous, this is not my opinion alone but that of E.P. Sanders, a leading Biblical scholar in the field. If we want to know who wrote the Gospels, we can look at the earliest traditions that we have and make cases based on internal and external evidence.

Mustafa Sahin wrote:
Well if they are Anonymous. Then Christians can not claim they have 4 Witnesses looking at the earliest manuscripts. For all, I care it could be 1 Witness. Copying and slightly improving or adding their vents from hearsay and not what they witnessed themselves as luke 1:1 tells us.

Because our Christian guest thought that, the story doesn’t have to be the same?

This is a wrong analysis. I agree that one story can add more information than the other which just can mean one gives more detail than the other, however,

Even in today’s Criminal Justice system if Mulitple eyewitness testimony is given as evidence. The Judge can dismiss the evidence based on the testimony if it’s not the same between the witness box, meaning the Storyline is not adding up) or if it’s contradictory. Then someone is telling a lie claiming to be an Eye- witness to the Crime scene.

Here is an example of that;

If Luke was correct mark must have been wrong?

Below we have two accounts from the same event, however, they differ in the order of chronology :


Jesus healed Peter’s mother-in-law and later John the Baptist was arrested (Mark 1:29-31) (Mark 6:17-18)

While in Luke we find the opposite ??

John the Baptist was arrested and later Jesus healed Peter’s mother-in-law (Luke 3:19-20) (Luke 4:38-39)


How do u rectify this problem, it’s the same event but in the opposite order? now here’s where the problem GROWS EVEN BIGGER, Luke tells us he has an accurate account of what happened during the Ministry of Jesus?

Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled[a] among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word. With this in mind, since I have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, I too decided to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, (Luke 1:1-3)


Note from the above passage from Luke how he states MANY HAVE UNDERTAKEN TO DRAW UP AN ACCOUNT? Who are all those Many, when Mark and Matthew are his only predecessors according to the Cannon, Also notice how he HAS AN ORDERLY ACCOUNT OF THE EVENTS? ThMarks’s’sMarks’s order was WRONG and thats according to Luke if not how do u rectify this Discrepancy?

Who are all those Many, when Mark was the only one who wrote before him? Unless there were more if so where are their writings?

This clearly shows that Luke didn’t agree exactly with Mark’s narrative. Thats why Luke had to investigate. This also begs the question why did Luke have to investigate the information since he had divine inspiration? If one claims to write by inspiration there is no need to investigate. This proves the Gospel writers didn’t believe they were individually inspired.

Also, im wondering if our Christian opponents would like to use the filtering arguement here. Luke is wrong and Mark is right because the earlier the more authentic?

This is clear evidence that they were not Eyewitnesses and that accounts nor what they wrote was divinely inspired. We can see why Matt Slick was at least honest in confessing this, I hope other Christians follow in Matt Slick’s footsteps.

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Rebuttal Section:

Christian wrote:


What are you talking about. Bart Ehrman dismmises the notion the Early church fathers, knew which desciples of Jesus wrote the four gospels.

Read for example

Tertullian, of course, would have no way of knowing who actually wrote these two Gospels.  He is simply repeating the tradition he learned when he converted, that Mark represents Peter’s views and Luke Paul’s.  By his time this was the accepted view, and it continued to be the accepted view until the modern era.


Sure you can say, that the gospel writers may have known the early disciples, but of course this doesn’t necessarily mean it’s true. They have  perhaps heard from them without meeting them. For example,

If you read the opening chapter of luke.

It writes:

1 Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled[a] among us, 2 just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first(B) were eyewitnesses(C) and servants of the word.(D) 3 With this in mind, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, I too decided to write an orderly account(E) for you, most excellent(F) Theophilus,(G) 4 so that you may know the certainty of the things you have been taught.(H)

If you notice the person who wrote lukes gospel, was not a eye witness himself. Meaning he was not a disciple of Jesus himself.

Notice it says, early disciples wrote an account, and those accounts were handed down. But then this begs the question, why did luke write his own account to add to the account? This shows all the luke repeats some of the early things handed down to him by early disciples, his not satisfied so he continues to write and add to the account.

So what we have is, perhaps the gospel of luke which has partially the accounts of early disciples who were Jesus descipled. Mixed with the accounts of people like Luke who weren’t exactly an eye witness or a disciple of Jesus.

Related link:

Our Authentic Islamic Hadiths are more reliable then the Gospel.