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The claim that the Bible is better attested then the Quran?

Last updated: 2nd July 2020

#Please note the information posted here. Are not my own works. They were posted on Facebook. So I decided to upload them here. For people to read.

Twenty points to equate evangelists with the ground

1; No practice of memorizing among early and contemporary Christians. Unlike Muslims, who have a memory of a whole-Quran practice today.

2; No manuscripts dating from the first, second or third century in which the Bible is available in manuscript form in compiled version, as opposed to Muslims who have multiple Koran in compiled versions dating from the late first century and early second century of Islam.

3; Scientific errors in the Bible, including the verses that the plants were created earlier than the sun, scientifically speaking, this is impossible. Unlike Christians, the Muslims do not know any events a la Galileo. In the seventeenth century there was a discussion between Galileo (a scientist) and a cardinal who claimed that the earth would be flat and not turned around the sun. In addition the many Contradictions found between the Gospel narratives. See examples here:

4; The lack of any form of sanad (chain) for the scriptures Marcus, Matthew, Lucas and John. Unlike Christians, Muslims base themselves on a sanad that is being verified, and according to this, a surrender is or may not be labeled as authentic, after which it is considered.

5; The confessions of early Christian apologetics including Chrysostomos that burn the Jews deliberately and consciously canonical books. (Chrysostomos in volume 9 comment on Matthew).

In his work ‘a dialogue with Thrypho’, Justinus writes the Martyr that the Jews deleted references to Jesus from the Tenach. (Adam Clarke, the holy bible, volume 2).

Jerome also says that the Jews have changed the Hebrew text in his comments on Galatians 3; 10 (Clarke’s Commentary).

Finally, church father Augustinus van Hippo, in his work ‘The City of God’, says that the Jews do not provide sound arguments for their devious seasons, which do not match the LXX, from Abraham to the flood. According to Augustine, the seasons that occur in the LXX are correct in contrast to the seasons in Hebrew text that are not correct.

6, All early church fathers including; Papias, Origen, Ireanaeus, Eusebius and Jerome confirm all that the Bible book of Matthew was originally written in Hebrew. No manuscripts of this Hebrew version have been found. What we only have is the Greek translation and a Hebrew translation of that Greek translation.

7; The second letter of Peter and the third letter of John were considered unreliable by some church fathers until the year 364, in the year 364, the conciliation decided to regard the three letters as authentic. Eusubius indicates that it belongs to well-known but unacceptable books. He also states that Peter’s second letter was not written by the apostle Peter. (Eisubius, paternal history, chapter 3, volume3)

8; Celcus (178), the Greek philosopher, writes in his work, the true word, the following; “Some believers go so far as to enter into themselves and change the original, the gospel three or four or more times, as if they are drunk and change their character so that they deny difficulties when they are critically confronted. The fact that the church father Orignes (3rd century) in his answer to the allegations of Celcus could not figure out that Jesus was called a carpenter. Because like Bart d. Ehrman noted that in the earliest script of the gospel of Marcus, called P45, dating from the beginning of the third century (Origen’s time) and in several later testimonies, the following; “Is this not the carpenter’s son?” Instead of being a carpenter himself, Jesus is the only carpenter’s son. Clearly a change made by copious and clear arguments supporting Celcus’s allegation.

9; The introduction of the site of the state Bible is as follows: “The lack of original manuscripts of gospels does not say anything about its authenticity. The most important manuscripts of the NT dating back to the fourth century. The oldest known Christian handwriting contains a few verses from John; It’s about a piece of papyrus that dates back to about 130 AD and is now in Manchester. ”

10; The Bible commentary Herald says the following on page 347, Volume 2; “The learned Melito did not include the book between the accepted books. This is handed over by Euesebius in his church father’s story volume 4, chapter 26.

In addition, Gregory Nazians have listed all the accepted books in a poem, but Esther’s book is not included here.

Amphilochius also expressed his question about the authenticity of the book. In a poem he attributed to Seleucus. Ten beatAthanasius rejected the book in his letter, number 39. “(Maulana, Izhar Ul Haqq, Izhar ul Haqq, Distortion and Abrogation in the Bible, 3-65).

The book of Esther was not regarded as authentic by the early church fathers Melito, Nazi, Seleucus, and Athanasius. This is also the reason that the book was not considered authentic by the scholars of the Calvijn reformation.

11; Which Pentateuch is authentic and inspired? The Hebrew Pentateuch, The Greek Translation, or the Samaritan Version, which show a wide range of differences. The Greek translation and the Samartan version have 900 similarities to the Hebrew version. And the Samaritan version has 6000 differences that differ from the Hebrew version. (Mustafa El Azaami, The History of the Quranic Text, 243).

Deuteronomy 27: 4 corresponds to the Dead Sea Holes and the Samartan Thora and NOT with the Masorian text.

Matthew 12: 17-18 corresponds to the Dead Sea Rolls and the Masoretic Version and NOT with the Septuagint.

Luke 4: 17-18 corresponds to the Septuagint and NOT with the Dead Sea Roles or the Masoretic Version

In Deuteronomy 32: 43 there is an addition in the Septuagint, which is not included in the Masorian text.

12; According to the church father Dionysius (the year 200) and Eusebius, the book “revelations of John” is not written by the apostle John. The book was written by an unknown John. (Source; Eusebius, history of the church, 7.25, 1-16).

13; Clement or Alexandria says the following; “All books were destroyed. After that, Ezra was inspired to rewrite this. ” Theophylactus has said the following; “The holy books were completely gone. Ezra was inspired by rewriting them. ” Jewish sources talk about 11 to 18 adjustments of the “Soforim” to the Old Testament (Rashi in his commentary). Under the Rabbi literature, this is known as the term ‘Tiqquney Soferim’. Finally, according to the early Jewish historian Josefus and the church father Eusebius, the original writings of the Old Testament were revealed in chronological order, however, this changed at the time of Ezra. (Eusebius, comments Psalms, psalm 72; PG23, 604b)

14; The first eleven verses of Chapter 8 of the Bible Scripture Johannes are a later addition. This also applies to 1 John 5: 7 and to Matthew 17; 21. Likewise, this applies to the actions of the apostles 8; 37. (Pullpit Commentary) (Barnes Notes)

James Robinson is professor of theology he writes in his work “The Gospel of Jesus, his original words” on page 69 the following; The real problem with this story is elsewhere; It does not belong in the original New Testament. It does not appear in the oldest and best manuscripts but was added in several places by later copiers … .. .. The most modern translators place the passage between brackets or note that this text is missing in the original text.”

15; The Greek translation of Daniel’s book, inspired by early Christians, was enhanced by the Origen’s church fathers in the third century. He has improved the book based on the translation of Theodotion. If the book did not contain any translation errors, why did he improve it? How can a book containing errors and improved later in the third century be inspired by God? According to Justinus de Martelaar, the Greek translation is accurate and inspired. Why was the urge among the church fathers to improve this version? Why do Christians today claim that the Hebrew version of the Bible has just been inspired? (Source; Helmut Koester, What is – and is not – inspired, Bible review, vol.xi, no5, October 1995, p18)

16; Marcus 16; 9-20 is a later addition to the Bible; The verses are missing in our two oldest and best manuscripts of the gospel of Marcus; The writing style differs from that of the rest of the gospel; The transition between this passage and the foregoing is difficult to understand (Mary Magdalene, for example, is introduced in verse 9 as if she had not yet been mentioned, even though she appears in the previous verses; there is another problem with the Greek which still causes the transition Become more unhappy); And a large number of words and sentences in the passage are not found anywhere else in Marcus. In short, the evidence is sufficient to convince almost all textualists that these verses are an addition. (Bart D. Ehrman, the evolution of the Bible, 79).

17; Even according to the “first church father” Irenaeus of Lyon, Marcus has only written his Bible scripture after the death of Peter and Paul. The apostle Peter has never read his writing, and Marcus has not written the scripture in the presence of an apostle. After the death of the apostle Peter, Marcus put his findings on paper. AlthaAccording to the church fathers. (Lardner in his Bible commentary). The scholars agree that the writing of Matthew in his current version is based on Marcus’s work. So he has taken over certain passages and stories of Marcus’s work. This shows that the disciple of Jesus, Matthew, is not the author of the work because if he were the author why would there be a need to quote from a work claimed to be written by a student of Another apostle. So you, as an apostle, are the primary source, but to draw your book or writing, you base the text on a secondary source, namely of someone who is not an eye of Jesus.

18; We read in the book that belongs to the five books Moses wrote (peace with him), the following;

Deuteronomy 34-5;

So Moses, the servant of the Lord, died there in the land of Moab in the mouth of the Lord.

And he buried him in a valley in the land of Moab, opposite Beth-peor; And no one has known his grave till this day.

According to authoritarian Torah commentator Abraham ibn Ezra (1092-1167) this is an addition to the writing of Moses made by Joshua. This is also accepted by the Pulpit commentary. (Source; Bernard M Casper, an introduction to Jewish Bible Commentary, London, 71).

19. Wrong reference in Mark 1: 2.

The problem is that the beginning of the quote is not at all from Isaiah, but a combination is from a passage from Exodus 23; 20 and one from Maleachi 3: 1. Writers saw that this was a difficulty, and the text – in some manuscripts – therefore changed; “The same is written with the prophets.” The attribution to Isaiah is found in the old manuscripts. (Bart d.Ehrman, the evolution of the Bible, 108).

20. In Lucas 24:46 is the following:

46 He said to them, “It is written that the messiah will suffer and die, but on the third day he will rise from the dead.

Nowhere in the Old Testament states that the Messiah will rise from the third day (Explicit word three days). In addition, Jonah did not pronounce prophecy that would be fulfilled by Jesus.

21: How the Quran has re-affirmed the correct position of History unlike the Mistakes in the Bible

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Can the Prophet Muhammed (Pbuh) read and write?

Responding to Critics who use a Hadith to prove the Prophet Muhammed (pbuh) made the Quran himself because of a Hadith narration that suggests He, could indeed write?

A short dialogue with Brother Br.Ijaz Ahmed.

Br.Ijaz:

He thinks that two ahadith mentioning that the Prophet peace be upon him “wrote” means that he could write. This is just how you say an amanuensis (scribe) wrote on your behalf. Even his Paul, says the same in 1st Corinthians 1:1 –

1 Corinthians 1 New International Reader’s Version (NIRV)
1 I, Paul, am writing this letter. I have been chosen to be an apostle of Christ Jesus just as God planned. Our brother Sosthenes joins me in writing.

In this case, Sosthenes writes on behalf of Paul.

Mustafa Sahin:

The Question they can not answer is what did he actually write down? Even a four year old if trained can only write down the letters of their own name, in doing so does that validate a child to be overall literate?

When my mother came to Australia, she grew up and lived here, without knowing how to write a single line or paragraph in the English language, all though she did know how to sign documents and write her own name. This does not mean she is literate now does it? These Pathetic Christians think, if one carrys a pen in there hand makes you literate, just desperate fools, who have no real commonsense, or absolute evidence, and like i said, they could never bring a single hadith that says, the Prophet had a pen in his hand writing paragraphs or line’s of sentences one after another. Poor missionary with infertile arguements.

Br. Ijaz Ahmed:

Actually Bart Ehrman in Misquoting Jesus (I think it’s this one) successfully argues that many scribes merely copied the shapes of letters without knowing how to read. One can be fully illiterate and write something.

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Lost early Gospels in Christianity?

××Under Construction ××

Christian Apologetic Websites claim there were No Lost Gospels you can read here:

http://www.gotquestions.org/lost-books-Bible.html

However, let us see what Paul himself said”

I am astonished that you are so quickly deserting the one who called you to live in the grace of Christ and is (turning to a different gospel). Galatians 1:6

Notice Paul is telling us in the very early, days of Christianity there were OTHER Gospels during Pauls lifetime being Preached. But Paul claimed these were fraudulent Gospels.

The Quran tells us in Sureh 5:13..” The Christian forgot a good part of the message revealed in the previous revelation.

Im wondering why did Paul leave out, this revelation did it contradict his views?

So the question is? If there are no Gospels lost? How come Paul tells us about them and if they are not lost where can we find them now?

Show us where the gospel of Jesus is?

Read bellow:

He will punish those who do not know God and do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus.
(2 Thessalonians 1:8)

Note the term Gospel is also said to be good news. In other translation for 2 Thessalonians 1:8

The question is where is the gospel of Jesus??

We have gospel according to Mark, Matthew, Luke, and John, We even have Paul saying my gospel ( Romans 16:25) so where is the gospel of Jesus…?

We are told that Jesus preached his Gospel :
(Mark 1:14) (Matthew 4:23) (Matthew 9:35)

Now your scriptures don’t have the gospel of Jesus yet it wants you to obey the gospel of Jesus? When Christians tell you your scripture says to follow the Injeel Tell them so does yours, So where is it?  Christians even say, there would have been an original 1st century complete Bible.

New Testament Scholar Bart Ehrman speaks about this here as the Q Gospel

https://ehrmanblog.org/and-then-there-was-q/

So, today’s modern bibles come from ancient manuscripts, that date from the 2nd and 3rd centuries. They say these are copies from the 2nd century. However, we don’t have the original. And if we don’t have the original, then we can never know if the 2nd and 3rd-century Manuscripts matched those originals. So yes, Christians do have “Lost” Bibles.

The lost Gospel of Judas:

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Latest information on Biblical Preservation

Last updated: 4th, Jan. 2022

Christian Scholars and Apologist admit Error’s in the Bible.

Bart Ehrman VS Wallace, see how Dr Ehrman proves the Bible can’t be trusted to another Scholar

Does the Errors in the Bible in Textural criticism effect the central or essential message or doctrine in Christianity?

Can Textural Criticism correct the Bible to affirm a true Preservation?

See also:

https://mustafasahin33.wordpress.com/2020/05/16/can-christians-fix-errors-in-bible/

Also visit:

Who wrote the Gospel of Mark?

Who wrote the Gospel of Mathew?

Testing the Historocity of the Gospel of Luke:

Who wrote the Gospel of John:

Testing the Historicity of the 4 Gospels

Is the Bible better attested then the Quran?

https://mustafasahin33.wordpress.com/2020/06/25/the-claim-that-the-bible-is-better-attested-then-the-quran/

The Lost and Missing Early Gospels:

https://mustafasahin33.wordpress.com/2020/06/25/lost-early-gospels-in-christianity/

Contradictions and Errors in the Bible, can the Four Gospels historically realiable?

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The Lie- Christian who claim, Jesus died by Cruicfiction in the Quran?

Refuting Christian’s who claim the Quran actually teachers Jesus died on the Cross?

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There are two responses to this;

Muslim- Response 1:

Muslim – Response 2:

I find it amusing that certain Christians are trying to dispute that the Quran does not claim clearly that Jesus was not Cruicified, nor does it say He was not killed on the Cross.

This is going to be so simple. All We have to do is go read what the Anti-Muslim (Answering-Islam)  have posted.

They write:

The vast majority of Muslims reject the Crucifixion of Christ because their Quran rejects this historical event. In the Quran we read:

And because of their saying: We slew the Messiah, Jesus son of Mary, Allah’s messenger – they slew him not nor crucified him, but it appeared so unto them; and lo! those who disagree concerning it are in doubt thereof; they have no knowledge thereof save pursuit of a conjecture; they slew him not for certain. (Quran 4:157, Pickthall)

It is quite clear that this religion teaches its followers that Jesus’ crucifixion was just an act of deception on the part of Allah. The Quran teaches that Allah deceived everyone to think Jesus was crucified but that it didn’t actually happen historically speaking. This claim is very problematic and it flies in the face of 1st and 2nd century historical data. For this reason the supposed hero of Islam, Bart Ehrman rejects Islam’s position that Jesus wasn’t crucified and he has openly stated that he believes Jesus was crucified according to the available data. In his work ‘The New Testament: A Historical Introduction to the Early Christian Writings,’ he states:

In any event, Tacitus’s report confirms what we know from other sources, that Jesus was executed by order of the Roman governor of Judea, Pontius Pilate.2

So it seems that the hero for Islam agrees with the Christians about Jesus being crucified. This is valuable information and is very useful to bring up to anyone who touts Ehrman as the hero of Islam.

Source: https://www.answering-islam.org/authors/thompson/bart_ehrman_hero.html

So I find it amusing really, here we have Christians trying to suggest the Quran does not teach that Jesus died on the Cross. Yet we have (Answering-Islam) showing how Bart ehrman disagrees with Islam for teaching Jesus was not cruicified. And that the Islamic records are false for not agreeing to 1st and 2nd century history, which teachers Jesus as Cruicified. So these other silly missionaries who claim the Quran does not deny Jesus not being cruicified, need to now go and argue with Sam Shamoun the owner of Answering-Islam, who clearly claims that the Quran dismisses the Death of Jesus by Crucifixion. And so they say, even Bart Erhman dismisses the Qur’anic narrative.

Ouch, nice try Christians.

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Stoning to death those commiting Adultery, and lashing.

Stoning to death those commiting Adultery, and lashing

By: Asadullah Ali

 

The punishments required in Islam for certain crimes are often considered “barbaric” by non-Muslims and liberal Muslims alike. However, I believe this is due primarily to a misunderstanding of what the punishments entail and what exactly is being punished.

For example, many consider the punishments for adultery to be extremely harsh (i.e. lashing and stoning), but what many people don’t understand is that adultery is not the thing that is actually punished — rather it’s the public display of adultery. This is why four witnesses are required; especially since Islam prohibits entering someone’s private property without permission.

In other words, for such a punishment to be enacted, you’d literally have to have illegal sexual intercourse in a public place (enough so that you’d be noticed in full detail by four people).

Now, there are those who will argue that even with such a clarification, the punishments are still “too harsh”. Why lash an unmarried couple for public displays of fornication? Why stone a married person for the same? Why not just fine them or jail them for a short amount of time?

But these questions display a lack of moral integrity and virtue when it comes to the issue of public displays of adultery. We are not just talking about the act of illegal intercourse here, but two people having the audacity to make it public — an open rebellion against the very foundations of society itself (i.e. the family). It is not some innocuous performance done out of ignorance, but a willing protest against all moral decency.

And it’s far worse when a married person does it. Not only are they spitting on the institution of marriage itself, but spitting in the face of their own family and children. Adultery is already such a heinous crime that one wonders why someone would have the gall to advertise it to the world. Even murderers and thieves try not to be as conspicuous.

Hence why the punishments are so harsh, because the very act that is being punished is so extreme — almost inconceivable.

Thus, I think there is a no more fitting statement than “they were asking for it”, because when you don’t even bother to hide such an indecency then you are literally asking for whatever punishment exist — no matter whether you perceive it as lenient or harsh.

At that point, neither of these categories matter, because you have agreed to the punishment by virtue of your behavior.

By- Asadullah Ali

 

Also, consider the West has many forms of physical discipline, such as using electric shock stun guns, police buttons, to punish those not conforming with the law.

 

 

Extra Rebuttal info:

Critic wrote:

“what many people don’t understand is that adultery is not the thing that is actually punished — rather it’s the public display of adultery.”

So suppose a case in which a man and a woman(both married) is proven to have commited adultery through medical tests, but at the same time it is discovered that they did so in private, behind closed doors. Will they be spared or have to face the punishment?

Muslim – Response:

Because they have agreed to take a medical test, that in its self is an agreement to somthing similiar to “Self confession”.

Therefore, it was their will to be transparent about it, thus they didnt keep it secret, therefore its the same as doing it in public display for why they get punished.

There was a case like this similiar when a Women came to the prophet and gave a self confession and wanted the hadd punishment, the Prophet turned her away three times, but she still insisted because she didnt wish an afterlife punishment which was worse than a worldy one.

Watch also:

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Does the Qu’ran use the word “Terrorism”? War crimes commited at Khaybar

 

Does the Qu’ran use the word “Terrorism”?

 

When critic of Islam thinks it does, He writes;  the Arabic word for Terrorism is found in sureh (8:60:10)
Arabic: tur’hibūna

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Muslim – Response:

The Critic has lied, the word is Terrify and not Terrorism as an Act of Terror:

(8:60:10)
tur’hibūna
(to) terrify
You assumed that the Word Terrify is the same as “Terrorism”?
So if you are Terrified it means someone has commited the act of Terrorism?
Please now show me, in which English Dictionary does the word Terrify only mean Terrorism? Or can it mean other things? I asked you where does the Word Terrorism exist, not Terrify your enemy. If America invaded another country, this would mean the opposing army will be Terrified. It doesn’t mean America is commiting the act of Terrorism. So I ask you where does the Quran use the specific word Terrorism as understood by the West, to specifically kill innocent women and children? The word Terrify yes is in the Quran. But not Terrorism. So you just exposed yourself. But of course you have no problem coining the English term and understanding of Terrorism and try to conflate it to the Quran. And yet the term Terrorism as understand by the West, is a Modern Term, which is not found in the Quran. See critics don’t say the word Terror is found in the Quran, they also say Terrorism is found in the Quran.  Thus your arguement falls flat on its face.

Critic wrote:

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Muslim- Response:

Horror and Terrify or Terror. Do not mean an Act of Terrorism. Horror, Terrify and Terrorise, even in the English language can be defined other then the term Terrorism as we understand it. Or maybe you need a lesson in English? Tell me it seems English is not your first language is it? If Horror or Terror is an Act of Terrorism, by today’s Western defintion and understanding then, if your swimming in open waters, and get horrified and terrified, or Terrorised by a big shark attacking you, and you get killed. Are you suggesting you got murdered by an Act of Terrorism? Even more So When America Terrorizes the Japanese with a Nuclear bomb and casts Terror in the Heart of Japanese, has it also commited the Act of Terror, or Terrorism?

The Critic wrote:

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Muslim – Response:

You just proved you don’t understand the term ” Act of Terrorism” which is not defined as being only Religiously motivated. It is also defined as being Politically Motivated, so America was politically motivated when it dropped a Bomb, to Terrorise the Japanese.

Critic wrote:

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Muslim – Response:

You said, an Act of Terror can be a War crime, like Hiroshima.

So you agree, America has commited a mass scale Terrorist act. Thank you for proving America is a Terrorist country, with a Terroist history, done by those who have a religion affiliation as the U.S army is predominantly bible believing Christians. You said, Khaybar had war crimes commited. Sure, you need to prove that War crimes were committed, but let’s not shift the goal posts, let’s stay firm on your claim that casting terror, in hearts is defined in of its self as an Act of Terror. But I can see your already running from defending your first premise.

Also, let’s talk about the Iraq war. Under U.S invasion they had a strategic plan, known as “shock and AWE” which means to rain bombs from all directions, Shock and awe (technically known as rapid dominance) is a tactic based on the use of overwhelming power and spectacular displays of force to paralyze the enemy’s perception of the battlefield and destroy their will to fight.

In millitery terms, it’s understood to “Terrorize” Sadam Hussains forces, and to instill fear and horror into the hearts of the enemy, under again a political motive. So I ask, is this also ” an Act of Terrorism, because this strategic plan, was to cast terror and horror in the face of the enemy, To break their will to resist.

So go on according to your standard of reasoning this is also an Act of Terror commited by the Bush Administration?

Critic Wrote:

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Muslim – Response:

You said, in IRAQ if soldiers of enemy are targeted then that’s not a War crime. Well you see you have changed the premise, your initial arguement was, casting terror in the hearts of enemy was an Act of Terror. Because that’s what the Quran says. I showed you just that when America goes to war, it uses the same method of shock and awe, and now that you have been confronted with that now you, moved the goal posts, from Quran to Hadith, and moved the goal posts from casting terror in ones heart, to targetting innocent lives. Interesting Hey? Well at least we are slowly but steadly getting somewhere. So now you have accepted that casting Terror in ones heart is not about Terrorism, unless it’s specifically targetting innocent people, no problem I can discuss this with you. By the way, it’s still nice to see, you accept killing innocent lives is an Act of Terror, something that Brendon tarrent did in NZ shooting and killing 50 Muslim worshippers massacred them in the Mosque. So much for Islamic religion and Terrorism? When your white Western folks in the age of entitlement and peace loving can do crimes of Terrorism and even record that whole cowardly event on his body cam, but hey your folks are pretty civilized.

So let’s sum it up your new objection, the Qur’anic passage that speaks about casting Terror into the hearts, your saying this is in conjunction, with War crimes commited against Civilians at Khaybar. Can I ask have you studied Muslim apologetics and the numerous articles responding to the made claims in conjunction with Khaybar? Because I have, I have studied all the authenticated documents, and there is not a single shed of evidence in the light of context, not a single hadith, Quran or commentary ever suggests a single war crime was commited that was approved by the Prophet himself. And I can easily confront you on this no problem.

Critic wrote: “Khaybar is Where Mohammed commited War crimes”

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Muslim – Response:

You said, killing a War captive, is a War crime. And a Act of Terror. So let me ask? So are you suggesting when America took Sadam Hussain as captive, then by court found him guilty, then they killed him. Are you suggesting this is an Act of Terror?

Critic wrote:

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Muslim – Response

The Prophet killed, all the male members. Yes that’s what you do in war. You take them captive and you execute them, once it was established they were behind the treacherous act of Treason, in trying to conspire to kill and harm the Muslims, that is no different from Sadam Hussain. Yes He cleared all the enemy combatants from the Hijazi, that was great, that’s exactly what you do to enemy combatants, but of course those who pay the Jizya are spared outside the Hijazi, under Islamic rule. The Prophet pushed them out, and created a safe heaven for the Muslims, something that Israel did against the Palestianian people, and built a wall to keep the Muslim Palestianians out of Israeli lands, thus it’s not a War crime to expell your enemy, they are the ones who tried to kill the Prophet thus they got “deported” something your West does with those who don’t adhere to the law of the land, example;

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Read more here:

The Expulsion Of Banu Al Nadir

 

Critic wrote:

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Muslim – Response:

A Captive who has been caught trying to instigate and kill the Muslims, then under Islamic law, they get killed because it means you were part of a plan, to conspire and kill the Muslims. The West has similar punishments, such as they caught Sadam Hussain, then He stood under trial, and then, He was sanctioned to death, which was celebrated and endorsed by the West and not just president Bush. This happened with the Bani Qurashi, who were gathered caught, and sanctioned to death after it was found they were instigating to kill the Muslims. So killing a War criminal under captivity is not a War crime, unless they were innocent of course, however we know from the Seerah that these tribes of Men, instigating to kill the Muslims, therefore under laws of treason, then captive criminals can be put to death, this has been practised widely by Western history and we have seen modern examples of this also. But I see, your just trolling around with your straw man assertions. It’s a shame I even gave you this much oxygen

 

Related articles:

A detailed Response: To the Conquest of Khaybar

The Conquest Of Khaybar And Of The Remaining Jewish Strongholds In Al Hijaz

We’re Wars crimes commited:

The Killing Of Abu ‘Afak And Asma’ Bint Marwan?

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Latest information on Qur’anic Preservation & Responses

Last updated: 14th, Feb. 2022

 

No Authmanic Quran Manuscript.

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See the video bellow of the oldest Quran, dating to the life time of the Prophet Muhammed (Pbuh) and the life time of Uthman his companion:

 

Yasir Qadhi doubting the preservation of the Quran? Is this true.

 

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Yasir Qadhi also explains, after (1 hour) mark. What He meant by Problems in the text or holes.

 

Some humour time?

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Farid response to Yasir, and to orientalists about Qur’anic preservation 

 

Is the Quran Preserved Adan Rasheed explains:

 

 

 

Dr Shabir Ali on Tubingen Manuscipts;

 

What about Sana Manuscripts?

 

Does a Student’s copy such as the Sana Manuscripts disrupt the Authenticity of the Quran?

 

A detailed explaination that Muslims don’t just follow Qur’anic preservation from a Written text transmittion, but also a Oral transmission:

 

Br. FARID educates Sameer on the Sana Manuscripts.

 

The claim to the 26 or 70 versions of the Quran?

 

 

What about the seven dialects?

 

Christian Apologist David Wood. Responding to his claims:

 

Refuting the missing verses claim:

https://www.letmeturnthetables.com/p/complete-list-of-articles.html

Muslim Response to Qur’anic Textural criticism of Daniel Brubaker

Br.Farid Response to Brubaker
https://youtu.be/YfQ2bkO8y7A

Response to Dan Brubaker
https://callingchristians.com/2019/06/08/corrections-in-early-qur%ca%bean-manuscripts-twenty-examples-dan-brubaker/

Missionary Mishap, on Brubaker
https://callingchristians.com/2019/06/09/missionary-mishap-brubakers-error/

Early Review of QuranGateway.Org

 

Br. Mansoor debunks Brubaker

Response to Dr. Tayyar

Release: A Critical Analysis of Jay Smith’s Mistakes About the Qur’an [Update]

Responses to Samuel Green on the Preservstion of the Quran:

https://mustafasahin33.wordpress.com/2016/06/04/reply-the-preservation-of-the-quran-to-samuel-green/

 

“(PDF) A Critical Analysis of Jay Smith’s Mistakes About the Qur’an | Ijaz Ahmad – Academia.edu” https://www.academia.edu/12966825/A_Critical_Analysis_of_Jay_Smiths_Mistakes_About_the_Quran

 

Response to Jay smith and And Al Fadhi on Textural veriences:

 

Counter Response to Al-Fahdi

 

Response to David Wood 11 Difference in 1 Page.

 

Did  a Goat or Sheep Eat the Qur’an?

 

The Elequence of the Quran: Refuting Ismael on the veriences of the Quran

 

Are there Mistakes in the Qirat?

 

Did Hafs make mistakes?

 

 

 

 

Christians make claims:

Muslim – Response:

THOSE ARABIC DIACRITICAL MARKS WERE ADDED TO THE QURAN CENTURIES LATER EVEN THE DOTS & DOODLES.

IT DOES NOT MEAN INNOCENT
IT MEANS WORST OF CREATIONS
HOW THE HELL WOULD YOU DEFINE  “WORST INNOCENT” ?

BOTH ARE TOTALLY OPPOSITE WORDS WITH EXACTLY OPPOSITE MEANINGS

ITS LIKE SAYING I SAW A GOOD BAD PERSON OR A TALL SHORT MAN OR A FAT THIN MAN

THE DIACRITICAL MARKS AND PUNCTUATIONS NEVER EXISTED AT THE TIME OF THE PROPHET MUHAMMAD ( Pbuh)

SO QURAN IS PERFECTLY ACCURATE AND IMMACULATE IF YOU READ IN CONTEXT

You can see Br. FARID clarify it here:

So as explained the diactrical marks, added later caused a misinterpretation. Remove the diactrical marks, and you get the same reading between the hafs and warsh.

Also Muslims don’t just rely upon textural preservation but also oral preservation. So if at any stage their are scribal errors or scribal mistranslation, we can cross references between all the available early manuscripts, and then work out the misprints, or if there are no manuscripts available (which by the way is never an issue), we can then refer to oral preservation.

People need to understand that variance in ancient manuscript doesn’t prove Ultimatly the Quran is false. A lot of manuscripts that were discovered, some are even student note copies. Which is not the master copy of the Quran. If I have my own personal quran I wrote today. If I made mistakes in it, that doesn’t mean other master copies are a mistake also. Rather my personal copy is the one that has errors. Similarly if I make a mistake reciting Quran a loud during prayer, and I recite the wrong word, that doesn’t effect the oral master agreed preservation that can be cross references by all the other Quranic Hafizis.

Were Early Quranic Manuscripts Manipulated?

Refuting Christian Missionaries on Quranic Recitation

Seven readings on the Quran?

For a whole lot more responses against the Quran, can be found here:

Click on link for responses:

https://www.letmeturnthetables.com/p/complete-list-of-articles.html?m=1

New Video.

Jaysmith and Al Fadhi get exposed on their lies regarding the dating of the Early Muslims.

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Islam – More Women in Hell & Women less intelligent? Women’s Testimony half that of a Man?

By: Mustafa Sahin

Critic wrote:

20200609_024056

Part 1:
Women less intelligent then Men, and more women in Hell?

Muslim-Response:

Tad Pringle? Why did you chop the hadith in half and you didn’t present the full context? The full context of the hadith explains what it means for women to be less intelligent, ( The Arabic is actually deficiency on two primary reasons and nothing about Men are academically more intelligent. Let’s read the full narration and not half the narration as you presented which will give us the complete picture of what the Prophet specified;

Narrated Abu Said Al-Khudri:
Once Allah’s Apostle went out to the Musalla (to offer the prayer) o ‘Id-al-Adha or Al-Fitr prayer. Then he passed by the women and said, “O women! Give alms, as I have seen that the majority of the dwellers of Hell-fire were you (women).” They asked, “Why is it so, O Allah’s Apostle ?” He replied, “You curse frequently and are ungrateful to your husbands. I have not seen anyone more deficient in intelligence and religion than you. A cautious sensible man could be led astray by some of you.” The women asked, “O Allah’s Apostle! What is deficient in our intelligence and religion?” He said, “Is not the evidence of two women equal to the witness of one man?” They replied in the affirmative. He said, “This is the deficiency in her intelligence. Isn’t it true that a woman can neither pray nor fast during her menses?” The women replied in the affirmative. He said, “This is the deficiency in her religion.”
Sahih Bukhari 1:6:301

So here the Prophet explains, it’s a biological deficiency women have, that she can’t praye while in a state of impurity during menses, this has nothing to do with, she lacks intelligence mentally in reference to “Academically or Socially on all circumstances”. Not at ALL. Also the part of the hadith, where it speaks about two women witness equal to one 1 man witness, this could refer to cases of Horrific crimes, where women fear looking at someone getting murderd for example because women tend to naturally fear more then men, since they are emotionally are more sensitive towards witnessing crime, so then her eye witness account in court might be effected if she looked away and didn’t get a good look at the criminal involved. Thus requiring another witness.

The Biological differences between Men and Women have even been outlined by Western Academics see under: Myth 3: A woman’s testimony is worth only half a man’s https://yaqeeninstitute.org/nazir-khan/women-in-islamic-law-examining-five-prevalent-myths/

It reads:
The results were clear-cut. Males were more accurate and less suggestible about the male-oriented items while females were more accurate and less suggestible about the female-oriented items. This finding provided clear support for the hypothesis that females and males tend to be accurate on different types of items, perhaps indicating their differential interest in particular items and corresponding differential amounts of attention paid to those items [3].

Though the hadith in Question is related to a Quranic verse such as buisness transactions, In this article we show, Western Academics show significant differences some of the biological issues women face that could cause them to err on certain circumstances compared to men.
Some of the examples given are post natal depression which could effect a women judgement see more here:
https://sunnahonline.com/library/women-and-islam/419-why-two-women-witnesses

There are even Western Academics and researchers, saying the data shows there are twice as many men as women who scored Higher in IQ.
https://www.independent.co.uk/news/education/higher/dr-paul-irwing-there-are-twice-as-many-men-as-women-with-an-iq-of-120-plus-426321.html
Are these due to Biological Factors and limitations, or are they based on social or environmental circumstances, there is no answer as of yet.

So as one can see, Islam in no way undermines the intelligence of women, since in Islam there are females who have been Scholars of even Hadith. Rather the Qur’anic text talk about the Biological issues a women may go through such as post-natal depression that could cause a women to forget thus requiring a second testimony and we have also shown there are certain conditions were her own testimony is still valid.

Part 2:

As for more women then men in hell?

Ref:

[3] Loftus, E. F., Banaji, M. R., Schooler, J. W., & Foster, R. (1987). Who remembers what? Gender differences in memory. Michigan Quarterly Review, 26, p. 79. Other research has noted that women generally have advantages in short-term memory, working memory, facial memory, while men excel in visuospatial memory. Encyclopedia of Human Memory. Ed. Annette Kujawski Taylor. (Greenwood 2013). p. 509.

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